Fight Finance

Question 108  bond pricing, zero coupon bond, term structure of interest rates, forward interest rate

An Australian company just issued two bonds:

• A 1 year zero coupon bond at a yield of 10% pa, and
• A 2 year zero coupon bond at a yield of 8% pa.

What is the forward rate on the company's debt from years 1 to 2? Give your answer as an APR compounding every 6 months, which is how the above bond yields are quoted.

(a) 0.1840

(b) 0.1202

(c) 0.0920

(d) 0.0602

(e) 0.0301

Question 303  WACC, CAPM, CFFA

There are many different ways to value a firm's assets. Which of the following will NOT give the correct market value of a levered firm's assets ##(V_L)##? Assume that:

• The firm is financed by listed common stock and vanilla annual fixed coupon bonds, which are both traded in a liquid market.
• The bonds' yield is equal to the coupon rate, so the bonds are issued at par. The yield curve is flat and yields are not expected to change. When bonds mature they will be rolled over by issuing the same number of new bonds with the same expected yield and coupon rate, and so on forever.
• Tax rates on the dividends and capital gains received by investors are equal, and capital gains tax is paid every year, even on unrealised gains regardless of when the asset is sold.
• There is no re-investment of the firm's cash back into the business. All of the firm's excess cash flow is paid out as dividends so real growth is zero.
• The firm operates in a mature industry with zero real growth.
• All cash flows and rates in the below equations are real (not nominal) and are expected to be stable forever. Therefore the perpetuity equation with no growth is suitable for valuation.

(a) ##V_L = n_\text{shares}.P_\text{share} + n_\text{bonds}.P_\text{bond}##

(b) ##V_L = n_\text{shares}.\dfrac{\text{Dividend per share}}{r_f + \beta_{EL}(r_m - r_f)} + n_\text{bonds}.\dfrac{\text{Coupon per bond}}{r_f + \beta_D(r_m - r_f)}##

(c) ##V_L = \dfrac{\text{CFFA}_{L}}{r_\text{WACC before tax}}##

(d) ##V_L = \dfrac{\text{CFFA}_{U}}{r_\text{WACC after tax}}##

(e) ##V_L = \dfrac{\text{CFFA}_{L}}{r_\text{WACC after tax}}##

Where:

###r_\text{WACC before tax} = r_D.\frac{D}{V_L} + r_{EL}.\frac{E_L}{V_L} = \text{Weighted average cost of capital before tax}### ###r_\text{WACC after tax} = r_D.(1-t_c).\frac{D}{V_L} + r_{EL}.\frac{E_L}{V_L} = \text{Weighted average cost of capital after tax}### ###NI_L=(Rev-COGS-FC-Depr-\mathbf{IntExp}).(1-t_c) = \text{Net Income Levered}### ###CFFA_L=NI_L+Depr-CapEx - \varDelta NWC+\mathbf{IntExp} = \text{Cash Flow From Assets Levered}### ###NI_U=(Rev-COGS-FC-Depr).(1-t_c) = \text{Net Income Unlevered}### ###CFFA_U=NI_U+Depr-CapEx - \varDelta NWC= \text{Cash Flow From Assets Unlevered}###

Question 387  real option, option

One of the reasons why firms may not begin projects with relatively small positive net present values (NPV's) is because they wish to maximise the value of their:

(a) Expansion option.

(b) Abandonment option.

(c) Timing (or delaying) option.

(d) Production (or switching) option.

(e) Underlying asset.

Question 396  real option, option

Your firm's research scientists can begin an exciting new project at a cost of $10m now, after which there’s a:

• 70% chance that cash flows will be $1m per year forever, starting in 5 years (t=5). This is the A state of the world.
• 20% chance that cash flows will be $3m per year forever, starting in 5 years (t=5). This is the B state of the world.
• 10% chance of a major break through in which case the cash flows will be $20m per year forever starting in 5 years (t=5), or instead, the project can be expanded by investing another $10m (at t=5) which is expected to give cash flows of $60m per year forever, starting at year 9 (t=9). Note that the perpetual cash flows are either the $20m from year 4 onwards, or the $60m from year 9 onwards after the additional $10m year 5 investment, but not both. This is the C state of the world.

The firm's cost of capital is 10% pa.

What's the present value (at t=0) of the option to expand in year 5?

(a) $12.54m

(b) $13.71m

(c) $20.98m

(d) $26.25m

(e) $27.37m

Question 484  payout ratio, dividend, no explanation

The below screenshot of Microsoft's (MSFT) details were taken from the Google Finance website on 28 Nov 2014. Some information has been deliberately blanked out.

What was MSFT's approximate payout ratio over the last year?

Note that MSFT's past four quarterly dividends were $0.31, $0.28, $0.28 and $0.28.

(a) 45.1%

(b) 30.95%

(c) 13.96%

(d) 5.33%

(e) 2.41%

Question 581  APR, effective rate, effective rate conversion

A home loan company advertises an interest rate of 6% pa, payable monthly. Which of the following statements about the interest rate is NOT correct? All rates are given to four decimal places.

(a) The APR compounding monthly is 6.0000% per annum.

(b) The effective monthly rate is 0.5000% per month.

(c) The effective annual rate is 6.1678% per annum.

(d) The effective 6 month rate is 3.0000% per six months.

(e) The APR compounding semi-annually is 6.0755% per annum.

Question 625  dividend re-investment plan, capital raising

Which of the following statements about dividend re-investment plans (DRP's) is NOT correct?

(a) DRP's are voluntary, shareholders only participate if they choose.

(b) DRP's increase the number of shares.

(c) The number of shares issued to a shareholder participating in a DRP is usually calculated as their total dividends owed, divided by the allocation share price which is usually close to the current market share price.

(d) DRP's do not incur brokerage costs for the shareholder. This is unlike the case where the shareholder uses the cash dividend to buy more shares herself.

(e) If all shareholders participated in a company's DRP, the company would not pay any dividends and the firm's share price would not fall due to the cash dividend or the DRP.

Question 687  option, no explanation

Which of the following statements about call options is NOT correct?

(a) Buyers of call options are required to pay an initial margin at the start.

(b) Call options are a zero-sum game in the sense that the winner gains at the expense of the loser.

(c) Buyers of call options have to pay the option price at the start.

(d) Buyers of call options do not care about the credit risk of the original call option seller since the contract is novated by the exchange.

(e) Speculators who sell call options hope that the underlying asset price falls.

Question 842  monetary policy, institution

Which Australian institution is in charge of monetary policy?

(a) Commonwealth Bank of Australia.

(b) Reserve Bank of Australia.

(c) National Australia Bank.

(d) Elected Federal Government.

(e) Australian Treasury.

Question 924  foreign exchange rate, forward foreign exchange rate, arbitrage, forward interest rate, no explanation

Suppose that the yield curve in the United States of America and Australia is flat and that the current:

• USD federal funds rate is 1% pa;
• AUD cash rate is 1.5% pa;
• Spot AUD exchange rate is 1 USD per AUD;
• One year forward AUD exchange rate is 0.97 USD per AUD.

You suspect that there’s an arbitrage opportunity.

Which one of the following statements about the potential arbitrage opportunity is NOT correct?

(a) Right now, borrow USD in America, convert it into AUD at the spot, lend it in Australia, lock in to buy USD and sell AUD forward one year. One year later, withdraw the AUD, convert it into USD and pay back the USD loan.

(b) American debt may be over-priced, sell it.

(c) Australian debt may be under-priced, buy it.

(d) The spot AUD may be under-priced compared to the USD, buy the AUD now.

(e) The forward AUD may be under-priced compared to the USD, lock in to buy the AUD in one year.