Find World Bar's Cash Flow From Assets (CFFA), also known as Free Cash Flow to the Firm (FCFF), over the year ending 30th June 2013.
World Bar | ||
Income Statement for | ||
year ending 30th June 2013 | ||
$m | ||
Sales | 300 | |
COGS | 150 | |
Operating expense | 50 | |
Depreciation | 40 | |
Interest expense | 10 | |
Taxable income | 50 | |
Tax at 30% | 15 | |
Net income | 35 | |
World Bar | ||
Balance Sheet | ||
as at 30th June | 2013 | 2012 |
$m | $m | |
Assets | ||
Current assets | 200 | 230 |
PPE | ||
Cost | 400 | 400 |
Accumul. depr. | 75 | 35 |
Carrying amount | 325 | 365 |
Total assets | 525 | 595 |
Liabilities | ||
Current liabilities | 150 | 205 |
Non-current liabilities | 235 | 250 |
Owners' equity | ||
Retained earnings | 100 | 100 |
Contributed equity | 40 | 40 |
Total L and OE | 525 | 595 |
Note: all figures above and below are given in millions of dollars ($m).
A new company's Firm Free Cash Flow (FFCF, same as CFFA) is forecast in the graph below.
To value the firm's assets, the terminal value needs to be calculated using the perpetuity with growth formula:
###V_{\text{terminal, }t-1} = \dfrac{FFCF_{\text{terminal, }t}}{r-g}###
Which point corresponds to the best time to calculate the terminal value?
Question 446 working capital decision, corporate financial decision theory
The working capital decision primarily affects which part of a business?
This annuity formula ##\dfrac{C_1}{r}\left(1-\dfrac{1}{(1+r)^3} \right)## is equivalent to which of the following formulas? Note the 3.
In the below formulas, ##C_t## is a cash flow at time t. All of the cash flows are equal, but paid at different times.
Some countries' interest rates are so low that they're zero.
If interest rates are 0% pa and are expected to stay at that level for the foreseeable future, what is the most that you would be prepared to pay a bank now if it offered to pay you $10 at the end of every year for the next 5 years?
In other words, what is the present value of five $10 payments at time 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 if interest rates are 0% pa?
Let the 'income return' of a bond be the coupon at the end of the period divided by the market price now at the start of the period ##(C_1/P_0)##. The expected income return of a premium fixed coupon bond is:
Question 693 boot strapping zero coupon yield, forward interest rate, term structure of interest rates
Information about three risk free Government bonds is given in the table below.
Federal Treasury Bond Data | ||||
Maturity | Yield to maturity | Coupon rate | Face value | Price |
(years) | (pa, compounding semi-annually) | (pa, paid semi-annually) | ($) | ($) |
0.5 | 3% | 4% | 100 | 100.4926 |
1 | 4% | 4% | 100 | 100.0000 |
1.5 | 5% | 4% | 100 | 98.5720 |
Based on the above government bonds' yields to maturity, which of the below statements about the spot zero rates and forward zero rates is NOT correct?
Question 823 option, option payoff at maturity, option profit, no explanation
A European call option should only be exercised if:
Question 926 mean and median returns, return distribution, arithmetic and geometric averages, continuously compounding rate
The arithmetic average continuously compounded or log gross discrete return (AALGDR) on the ASX200 accumulation index over the 24 years from 31 Dec 1992 to 31 Dec 2016 is 9.49% pa.
The arithmetic standard deviation (SDLGDR) is 16.92 percentage points pa.
Assume that the log gross discrete returns are normally distributed and that the above estimates are true population statistics, not sample statistics, so there is no standard error in the sample mean or standard deviation estimates. Also assume that the standardised normal Z-statistic corresponding to a one-tail probability of 2.5% is exactly -1.96.
If you had a $1 million fund that replicated the ASX200 accumulation index, in how many years would the median dollar value of your fund first be expected to lie outside the 95% confidence interval forecast?