For a price of $100, Carol will sell you a 5 year bond paying semi-annual coupons of 16% pa. The face value of the bond is $100. Other bonds with similar risk, maturity and coupon characteristics trade at a yield of 12% pa.
A zero coupon bond that matures in 6 months has a face value of $1,000.
The firm that issued this bond is trying to forecast its income statement for the year. It needs to calculate the interest expense of the bond this year.
The bond is highly illiquid and hasn't traded on the market. But the finance department have assessed the bond's fair value to be $950 and this is its book value right now at the start of the year.
Assume that:
- the firm uses the 'effective interest method' to calculate interest expense.
- the market value of the bond is the same as the book value.
- the firm is only interested in this bond's interest expense. Do not include the interest expense for a new bond issued to refinance the current one, as would normally happen.
What will be the interest expense of the bond this year for the purpose of forecasting the income statement?
You want to buy an apartment priced at $500,000. You have saved a deposit of $50,000. The bank has agreed to lend you the $450,000 as an interest only loan with a term of 30 years. The interest rate is 6% pa and is not expected to change. What will be your monthly payments?
Unrestricted negative gearing is allowed in Australia, New Zealand and Japan. Negative gearing laws allow income losses on investment properties to be deducted from a tax-payer's pre-tax personal income. Negatively geared investors benefit from this tax advantage. They also hope to benefit from capital gains which exceed the income losses.
For example, a property investor buys an apartment funded by an interest only mortgage loan. Interest expense is $2,000 per month. The rental payments received from the tenant living on the property are $1,500 per month. The investor can deduct this income loss of $500 per month from his pre-tax personal income. If his personal marginal tax rate is 46.5%, this saves $232.5 per month in personal income tax.
The advantage of negative gearing is an example of the benefits of:
In the dividend discount model:
###P_0 = \dfrac{C_1}{r-g}###
The return ##r## is supposed to be the:
A man just sold a call option to his counterparty, a lady. The man has just now:
A firm wishes to raise $50 million now. They will issue 7% pa semi-annual coupon bonds that will mature in 6 years and have a face value of $100 each. Bond yields are 5% pa, given as an APR compounding every 6 months, and the yield curve is flat.
How many bonds should the firm issue?
Use the below information to value a levered company with constant annual perpetual cash flows from assets. The next cash flow will be generated in one year from now, so a perpetuity can be used to value this firm. Both the operating and firm free cash flows are constant (but not equal to each other).
Data on a Levered Firm with Perpetual Cash Flows | ||
Item abbreviation | Value | Item full name |
##\text{OFCF}## | $100m | Operating free cash flow |
##\text{FFCF or CFFA}## | $112m | Firm free cash flow or cash flow from assets (includes interest tax shields) |
##g## | 0% pa | Growth rate of OFCF and FFCF |
##\text{WACC}_\text{BeforeTax}## | 7% pa | Weighted average cost of capital before tax |
##\text{WACC}_\text{AfterTax}## | 6.25% pa | Weighted average cost of capital after tax |
##r_\text{D}## | 5% pa | Cost of debt |
##r_\text{EL}## | 9% pa | Cost of levered equity |
##D/V_L## | 50% pa | Debt to assets ratio, where the asset value includes tax shields |
##t_c## | 30% | Corporate tax rate |
What is the value of the levered firm including interest tax shields?
"Buy low, sell high" is a well-known saying. It suggests that investors should buy low then sell high, in that order.
How would you re-phrase that saying to describe short selling?
Question 823 option, option payoff at maturity, option profit, no explanation
A European call option should only be exercised if: