# Fight Finance

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Bonds A and B are issued by the same Australian company. Both bonds yield 7% pa, and they have the same face value (\$100), maturity, seniority, and payment frequency.

The only difference is that bond A pays coupons of 10% pa and bond B pays coupons of 5% pa. Which of the following statements is true about the bonds' prices?

The following equation is the Dividend Discount Model, also known as the 'Gordon Growth Model' or the 'Perpetuity with growth' equation.

$$p_0 = \frac{d_1}{r - g}$$

Which expression is NOT equal to the expected dividend yield?

The coupon rate of a fixed annual-coupon bond is constant (always the same).

What can you say about the income return ($r_\text{income}$) of a fixed annual coupon bond? Remember that:

$$r_\text{total} = r_\text{income} + r_\text{capital}$$

$$r_\text{total, 0 to 1} = \frac{c_1}{p_0} + \frac{p_1-p_0}{p_0}$$

Assume that there is no change in the bond's total annual yield to maturity from when it is issued to when it matures.

Select the most correct statement.

From its date of issue until maturity, the income return of a fixed annual coupon:

When someone says that they're "buying American dollars" (USD), what type of asset are they probably buying? They're probably buying:

If the current AUD exchange rate is USD 0.9686 = AUD 1, what is the American terms quote of the AUD against the USD?

A risky firm will last for one period only (t=0 to 1), then it will be liquidated. So it's assets will be sold and the debt holders and equity holders will be paid out in that order. The firm has the following quantities:

$V$ = Market value of assets.

$E$ = Market value of (levered) equity.

$D$ = Market value of zero coupon bonds.

$F_1$ = Total face value of zero coupon bonds which is promised to be paid in one year.

The risky corporate debt graph above contains bold labels a to e. Which of the following statements about those labels is NOT correct?

Risk-free government bonds that have coupon rates greater than their yields:

Which of the following statements about European call options on non-dividend paying stocks is NOT correct?

The symbol $\text{GDR}_{0\rightarrow 1}$ represents a stock's gross discrete return per annum over the first year. $\text{GDR}_{0\rightarrow 1} = P_1/P_0$. The subscript indicates the time period that the return is mentioned over. So for example, $\text{AAGDR}_{1 \rightarrow 3}$ is the arithmetic average GDR measured over the two year period from years 1 to 3, but it is expressed as a per annum rate.

Which of the below statements about the arithmetic and geometric average GDR is NOT correct?

Under the Bretton Woods System (1944 to 1971), currencies were priced relative to: