Fight Finance

Question 155  inflation, real and nominal returns and cash flows, Loan, effective rate conversion

You are a banker about to grant a 2 year loan to a customer. The loan's principal and interest will be repaid in a single payment at maturity, sometimes called a zero-coupon loan, discount loan or bullet loan.

You require a real return of 6% pa over the two years, given as an effective annual rate. Inflation is expected to be 2% this year and 4% next year, both given as effective annual rates.

You judge that the customer can afford to pay back $1,000,000 in 2 years, given as a nominal cash flow. How much should you lend to her right now?

(a) $838,907.00

(b) $838,986.09

(c) $841,754.97

(d) $889,996.44

(e) $944,108.22

Question 232  CAPM, DDM

A stock has a beta of 0.5. Its next dividend is expected to be $3, paid one year from now. Dividends are expected to be paid annually and grow by 2% pa forever. Treasury bonds yield 5% pa and the market portfolio's expected return is 10% pa. All returns are effective annual rates.

What is the price of the stock now?

(a) $55.6364

(b) $54.5455

(c) $40.8

(d) $40

(e) $37.5

Question 235  SML, NPV, CAPM, risk

The security market line (SML) shows the relationship between beta and expected return.

Investment projects that plot on the SML would have:

(a) A positive NPV and should be accepted.

(b) A zero NPV.

(c) A negative NPV and should be rejected.

(d) A large amount of diversifiable risk.

(e) Zero diversifiable risk.

Question 243  fundamental analysis, market efficiency

Fundamentalists who analyse company financial reports and news announcements (but who don't have inside information) will make positive abnormal returns if:

(a) Markets are weak and semi-strong form efficient but strong-form inefficient.

(b) Markets are weak form efficient but semi-strong and strong-form inefficient.

(c) Chartists make negative excess returns.

(d) Insiders make positive excess returns.

(e) Insiders make negative excess returns.

Question 271  CAPM, option, risk, systematic risk, systematic and idiosyncratic risk

All things remaining equal, according to the capital asset pricing model, if the systematic variance of an asset increases, its required return will increase and its price will decrease.
If the idiosyncratic variance of an asset increases, its price will be unchanged.

What is the relationship between the price of a call or put option and the total, systematic and idiosyncratic variance of the underlying asset that the option is based on? Select the most correct answer.

Call and put option prices increase when the:

(a) Systematic variance of the underlying asset increases.

(b) Idiosyncratic variance of the underlying asset increases.

(c) Systematic, idiosyncratic or total variance of the underlying asset increases.

(d) Systematic variance of the underlying asset decreases.

(e) Systematic, idiosyncratic or total variance of the underlying asset decreases.

Question 566  capital structure, capital raising, rights issue, on market repurchase, dividend, stock split, bonus issue

A company's share price fell by 20% and its number of shares rose by 25%. Assume that there are no taxes, no signalling effects and no transaction costs.

Which one of the following corporate events may have happened?

(a) $1 cash dividend when the pre-announcement stock price was $5.

(b) On-market buy-back of 20% of the company's outstanding stock.

(c) 5 for 4 stock split.

(d) 1 for 5 bonus issue.

(e) 1 for 4 rights issue at a subscription price of $3 when the pre-announcement stock price was $5.

Question 794  option, Black-Scholes-Merton option pricing, option delta, no explanation

Which of the following quantities from the Black-Scholes-Merton option pricing formula gives the Delta of a European call option?

(a) ##N[d_1]##

(b) ##N[d_2]##

(c) ##−N[−d_1]##

(d) ##−N[−d_2]##

(e) ##N[−d_2]##

Where:

###d_1=\dfrac{\ln⁡[S_0/K]+(r+\sigma^2/2).T)}{\sigma.\sqrt{T}}### ###d_2=d_1-\sigma.\sqrt{T}=\dfrac{\ln⁡[S_0/K]+(r-\sigma^2/2).T)}{\sigma.\sqrt{T}}###

Question 947  arbitrage table, option, no explanation

A non-dividend paying stock has a current price of $20.

The risk free rate is 5% pa given as a continuously compounded rate.

Options on the stock are currently priced at $5 for calls and $5.55 for puts where both options have a 2 year maturity and an exercise price of $24.

You suspect that the call option contract is mis-priced and would like to conduct a risk-free arbitrage that requires zero capital. Which of the following steps about arbitraging the situation is NOT correct?

(a) The call option is over-priced and should be sold.

(b) One put option should be sold.

(c) One stock should be bought.

(d) A 2 year zero coupon bond with a face value at maturity of $24 should be sold.

(e) The gain now will be $1.1661 per option contract with zero cash flows in the future.

Question 950  future, backwardation

If futures prices are in backwardation, then futures prices (##F_{0,T}##) are than, than or to spot prices (##S_0##)?

Question 972  foreign exchange rate, no explanation

Examine the below graphs. The first graph shows daily FX turnover in the world by both the public (government) and private sectors. The second graph 'Official Reserve Assets' shows the FX reserves of the Australian central bank, the RBA. The third graph's top panel shows the FX reserves of the Chinese central bank, the PBoC.

Assume that the AUD and USD are priced at parity so 1 AUD = 1 USD.

Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

(a) If the RBA tried to make the AUD appreciate, it would buy AUD and this would reduce its FX reserves.

(b) The Australian central bank’s FX reserves as a proportion of daily AUD per USD turnover is around 0.3.

(c) The Chinese central bank’s FX reserves as a proportion of daily RMB per USD turnover is around 15.

(d) The Australian central bank’s FX reserves may include AUD.

(e) The Chinese central bank’s FX reserves may include AUD.