# Fight Finance

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Katya offers to pay you $10 at the end of every year for the next 5 years (t=1,2,3,4,5) if you pay her$50 now (t=0). You can borrow and lend from the bank at an interest rate of 10% pa, given as an effective annual rate.

Ignore credit risk.

Will you or Katya's deal?

What is the NPV of the following series of cash flows when the discount rate is 5% given as an effective annual rate?

The first payment of \$10 is in 4 years, followed by payments every 6 months forever after that which shrink by 2% every 6 months. That is, the growth rate every 6 months is actually negative 2%, given as an effective 6 month rate. So the payment at $t=4.5$ years will be $10(1-0.02)^1=9.80$, and so on.

According to the theory of the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM), total risk can be broken into two components, systematic risk and idiosyncratic risk. Which of the following events would be considered a systematic, undiversifiable event according to the theory of the CAPM?

A wholesale vitamin supplements store offers credit to its customers. Customers are given 30 days to pay for their goods, but if they pay within 5 days they will get a 1% discount.

What is the effective interest rate implicit in the discount being offered? Assume 365 days in a year and that all customers pay on either the 5th day or the 30th day. All of the below answer choices are given as effective annual interest rates.

All things remaining equal, according to the capital asset pricing model, if the systematic variance of an asset increases, its required return will increase and its price will decrease.
If the idiosyncratic variance of an asset increases, its price will be unchanged.

What is the relationship between the price of a call or put option and the total, systematic and idiosyncratic variance of the underlying asset that the option is based on? Select the most correct answer.

Call and put option prices increase when the:

A risky firm will last for one period only (t=0 to 1), then it will be liquidated. So it's assets will be sold and the debt holders and equity holders will be paid out in that order. The firm has the following quantities:

$V$ = Market value of assets.

$E$ = Market value of (levered) equity.

$D$ = Market value of zero coupon bonds.

$F_1$ = Total face value of zero coupon bonds which is promised to be paid in one year.

The levered equity graph above contains bold labels a to e. Which of the following statements about those labels is NOT correct?

Which of the below formulas gives the payoff $(f)$ at maturity $(T)$ from being long a put option? Let the underlying asset price at maturity be $S_T$ and the exercise price be $X_T$.

What derivative position are you exposed to if you have the obligation to sell the underlying asset at maturity, so you will definitely be forced to sell the underlying asset?

Question 892  foreign currency reserves, foreign exchange rate, no explanation

The Chinese central bank has the largest amount of foreign currency reserves.

What could the large amounts of foreign exchange reserves held by the Chinese government be used for in a currency crisis? China's currency is called the Renminbi (RMB) or Yuan (CNY). In a Chinese currency crisis the Chinese government is likely to use its FX reserves to: