Find Piano Bar's Cash Flow From Assets (CFFA), also known as Free Cash Flow to the Firm (FCFF), over the year ending 30th June 2013.
Piano Bar | ||
Income Statement for | ||
year ending 30th June 2013 | ||
$m | ||
Sales | 310 | |
COGS | 185 | |
Operating expense | 20 | |
Depreciation | 15 | |
Interest expense | 10 | |
Income before tax | 80 | |
Tax at 30% | 24 | |
Net income | 56 | |
Piano Bar | ||
Balance Sheet | ||
as at 30th June | 2013 | 2012 |
$m | $m | |
Assets | ||
Current assets | 240 | 230 |
PPE | ||
Cost | 420 | 400 |
Accumul. depr. | 50 | 35 |
Carrying amount | 370 | 365 |
Total assets | 610 | 595 |
Liabilities | ||
Current liabilities | 180 | 190 |
Non-current liabilities | 290 | 265 |
Owners' equity | ||
Retained earnings | 90 | 90 |
Contributed equity | 50 | 50 |
Total L and OE | 610 | 595 |
Note: all figures are given in millions of dollars ($m).
When using the dividend discount model, care must be taken to avoid using a nominal dividend growth rate that exceeds the country's nominal GDP growth rate. Otherwise the firm is forecast to take over the country since it grows faster than the average business forever.
Suppose a firm's nominal dividend grows at 10% pa forever, and nominal GDP growth is 5% pa forever. The firm's total dividends are currently $1 billion (t=0). The country's GDP is currently $1,000 billion (t=0).
In approximately how many years will the company's total dividends be as large as the country's GDP?
An old company's Firm Free Cash Flow (FFCF, same as CFFA) is forecast in the graph below.
To value the firm's assets, the terminal value needs to be calculated using the perpetuity with growth formula:
###V_{\text{terminal, }t-1} = \dfrac{FFCF_{\text{terminal, }t}}{r-g}###
Which point corresponds to the best time to calculate the terminal value?
A new company's Firm Free Cash Flow (FFCF, same as CFFA) is forecast in the graph below.
To value the firm's assets, the terminal value needs to be calculated using the perpetuity with growth formula:
###V_{\text{terminal, }t-1} = \dfrac{FFCF_{\text{terminal, }t}}{r-g}###
Which point corresponds to the best time to calculate the terminal value?
Acquirer firm plans to launch a takeover of Target firm. The deal is expected to create a present value of synergies totaling $105 million. A cash offer will be made that pays the fair price for the target's shares plus 75% of the total synergy value. The cash will be paid out of the firm's cash holdings, no new debt or equity will be raised.
Firms Involved in the Takeover | ||
Acquirer | Target | |
Assets ($m) | 6,000 | 700 |
Debt ($m) | 4,800 | 400 |
Share price ($) | 40 | 20 |
Number of shares (m) | 30 | 15 |
Ignore transaction costs and fees. Assume that the firms' debt and equity are fairly priced, and that each firms' debts' risk, yield and values remain constant. The acquisition is planned to occur immediately, so ignore the time value of money.
Calculate the merged firm's share price and total number of shares after the takeover has been completed.
Private equity firms are known to buy medium sized private companies operating in the same industry, merge them together into a larger company, and then sell it off in a public float (initial public offering, IPO).
If medium-sized private companies trade at PE ratios of 5 and larger listed companies trade at PE ratios of 15, what return can be achieved from this strategy?
Assume that:
- The medium-sized companies can be bought, merged and sold in an IPO instantaneously.
- There are no costs of finding, valuing, merging and restructuring the medium sized companies. Also, there is no competition to buy the medium-sized companies from other private equity firms.
- The large merged firm's earnings are the sum of the medium firms' earnings.
- The only reason for the difference in medium and large firm's PE ratios is due to the illiquidity of the medium firms' shares.
- Return is defined as: ##r_{0→1} = (p_1-p_0+c_1)/p_0## , where time zero is just before the merger and time one is just after.
A firm has a debt-to-assets ratio of 20%. What is its debt-to-equity ratio?
Question 710 continuously compounding rate, continuously compounding rate conversion
A continuously compounded monthly return of 1% ##(r_\text{cc monthly})## is equivalent to a continuously compounded annual return ##(r_\text{cc annual})## of:
Question 834 option, delta, theta, gamma, standard deviation, Black-Scholes-Merton option pricing
Which of the following statements about an option (either a call or put) and its underlying stock is NOT correct?
European Call Option | ||
on a non-dividend paying stock | ||
Description | Symbol | Quantity |
Spot price ($) | ##S_0## | 20 |
Strike price ($) | ##K_T## | 18 |
Risk free cont. comp. rate (pa) | ##r## | 0.05 |
Standard deviation of the stock's cont. comp. returns (pa) | ##\sigma## | 0.3 |
Option maturity (years) | ##T## | 1 |
Call option price ($) | ##c_0## | 3.939488 |
Delta | ##\Delta = N[d_1]## | 0.747891 |
##N[d_2]## | ##N[d_2]## | 0.643514 |
Gamma | ##\Gamma## | 0.053199 |
Theta ($/year) | ##\Theta = \partial c / \partial T## | 1.566433 |