A fixed coupon bond was bought for $90 and paid its annual coupon of $3 one year later (at t=1 year). Just after the coupon was paid, the bond price was $92 (at t=1 year). What was the total return, capital return and income return? Calculate your answers as effective annual rates.
The choices are given in the same order: ## r_\text{total},r_\text{capital},r_\text{income} ##.
Which one of the following will have no effect on net income (NI) but decrease cash flow from assets (CFFA or FFCF) in this year for a tax-paying firm, all else remaining constant?
Remember:
###NI=(Rev-COGS-FC-Depr-IntExp).(1-t_c )### ###CFFA=NI+Depr-CapEx - ΔNWC+IntExp###Question 413 CFFA, interest tax shield, depreciation tax shield
There are many ways to calculate a firm's free cash flow (FFCF), also called cash flow from assets (CFFA).
One method is to use the following formulas to transform net income (NI) into FFCF including interest and depreciation tax shields:
###FFCF=NI + Depr - CapEx -ΔNWC + IntExp###
###NI=(Rev - COGS - Depr - FC - IntExp).(1-t_c )###
Another popular method is to use EBITDA rather than net income. EBITDA is defined as:
###EBITDA=Rev - COGS - FC###
One of the below formulas correctly calculates FFCF from EBITDA, including interest and depreciation tax shields, giving an identical answer to that above. Which formula is correct?
A man is thinking about taking a day off from his casual painting job to relax.
He just woke up early in the morning and he's about to call his boss to say that he won't be coming in to work.
But he's thinking about the hours that he could work today (in the future) which are:
The efficient markets hypothesis (EMH) and no-arbitrage pricing theory are most closely related to which of the following concepts?
Use the below information to value a levered company with constant annual perpetual cash flows from assets. The next cash flow will be generated in one year from now, so a perpetuity can be used to value this firm. Both the operating and firm free cash flows are constant (but not equal to each other).
| Data on a Levered Firm with Perpetual Cash Flows | ||
| Item abbreviation | Value | Item full name |
| ##\text{OFCF}## | $48.5m | Operating free cash flow |
| ##\text{FFCF or CFFA}## | $50m | Firm free cash flow or cash flow from assets |
| ##g## | 0% pa | Growth rate of OFCF and FFCF |
| ##\text{WACC}_\text{BeforeTax}## | 10% pa | Weighted average cost of capital before tax |
| ##\text{WACC}_\text{AfterTax}## | 9.7% pa | Weighted average cost of capital after tax |
| ##r_\text{D}## | 5% pa | Cost of debt |
| ##r_\text{EL}## | 11.25% pa | Cost of levered equity |
| ##D/V_L## | 20% pa | Debt to assets ratio, where the asset value includes tax shields |
| ##t_c## | 30% | Corporate tax rate |
What is the value of the levered firm including interest tax shields?
Which derivatives position has the possibility of unlimited potential gains?
A company has a 95% daily Value at Risk (VaR) of $1 million. The units of this VaR are in:
Question 883 monetary policy, impossible trinity, foreign exchange rate
It’s often thought that the ideal currency or exchange rate regime would:
1. Be fixed against the USD;
2. Be convertible to and from USD for traders and investors so there are open goods, services and capital markets, and;
3. Allow independent monetary policy set by the country’s central bank, independent of the US central bank. So the country can set its own interest rate independent of the US Federal Reserve’s USD interest rate.
However, not all of these characteristics can be achieved. One must be sacrificed. This is the 'impossible trinity'.
Which of the following exchange rate regimes sacrifices convertibility?
Question 908 effective rate, return types, gross discrete return, return distribution, price gains and returns over time
For an asset's price to double from say $1 to $2 in one year, what must its gross discrete return (GDR) be? If the price now is ##P_0## and the price in one year is ##P_1## then the gross discrete return over the next year is:
###\text{GDR}_\text{annual} = \dfrac{P_1}{P_0}###