Question 237 WACC, Miller and Modigliani, interest tax shield
Which of the following discount rates should be the highest for a levered company? Ignore the costs of financial distress.
The below screenshot of Commonwealth Bank of Australia's (CBA) details were taken from the Google Finance website on 7 Nov 2014. Some information has been deliberately blanked out.
What was CBA's approximate payout ratio over the 2014 financial year?
Note that the firm's interim and final dividends were $1.83 and $2.18 respectively over the 2014 financial year.
Question 547 PE ratio, Multiples valuation, DDM, income and capital returns, no explanation
A firm pays out all of its earnings as dividends. Because of this, the firm has no real growth in earnings, dividends or stock price since there is no re-investment back into the firm to buy new assets and make higher earnings. The dividend discount model is suitable to value this company.
The firm's revenues and costs are expected to increase by inflation in the foreseeable future. The firm has no debt. It operates in the services industry and has few physical assets so there is negligible depreciation expense and negligible net working capital required.
Which of the following statements about this firm's PE ratio is NOT correct? The PE ratio should:
Note: The inverse of x is 1/x.
Which of the below formulas gives the profit ##(\pi)## from being short a put option? Let the underlying asset price at maturity be ##S_T##, the exercise price be ##X_T## and the option price be ##f_{LP,0}##. Note that ##S_T##, ##X_T## and ##f_{LP,0}## are all positive numbers.
Use the below information to value a levered company with constant annual perpetual cash flows from assets. The next cash flow will be generated in one year from now, so a perpetuity can be used to value this firm. Both the operating and firm free cash flows are constant (but not equal to each other).
Data on a Levered Firm with Perpetual Cash Flows | ||
Item abbreviation | Value | Item full name |
##\text{OFCF}## | $48.5m | Operating free cash flow |
##\text{FFCF or CFFA}## | $50m | Firm free cash flow or cash flow from assets |
##g## | 0% pa | Growth rate of OFCF and FFCF |
##\text{WACC}_\text{BeforeTax}## | 10% pa | Weighted average cost of capital before tax |
##\text{WACC}_\text{AfterTax}## | 9.7% pa | Weighted average cost of capital after tax |
##r_\text{D}## | 5% pa | Cost of debt |
##r_\text{EL}## | 11.25% pa | Cost of levered equity |
##D/V_L## | 20% pa | Debt to assets ratio, where the asset value includes tax shields |
##t_c## | 30% | Corporate tax rate |
What is the value of the levered firm including interest tax shields?
What is the Cash Conversion Cycle for a firm with a:
- Payables period of 1 day;
- Inventory period of 50 days; and
- Receivables period of 30 days?
All answer options are in days:
Question 924 foreign exchange rate, forward foreign exchange rate, arbitrage, forward interest rate, no explanation
Suppose that the yield curve in the United States of America and Australia is flat and that the current:
- USD federal funds rate is 1% pa;
- AUD cash rate is 1.5% pa;
- Spot AUD exchange rate is 1 USD per AUD;
- One year forward AUD exchange rate is 0.97 USD per AUD.
You suspect that there’s an arbitrage opportunity.
Which one of the following statements about the potential arbitrage opportunity is NOT correct?
Question 963 Bretton Woods, foreign exchange rate, foreign exchange system history, no explanation
Under the Bretton Woods System (1944 to 1971), currencies were priced relative to: