Unrestricted negative gearing is allowed in Australia, New Zealand and Japan. Negative gearing laws allow income losses on investment properties to be deducted from a tax-payer's pre-tax personal income. Negatively geared investors benefit from this tax advantage. They also hope to benefit from capital gains which exceed the income losses.
For example, a property investor buys an apartment funded by an interest only mortgage loan. Interest expense is $2,000 per month. The rental payments received from the tenant living on the property are $1,500 per month. The investor can deduct this income loss of $500 per month from his pre-tax personal income. If his personal marginal tax rate is 46.5%, this saves $232.5 per month in personal income tax.
The advantage of negative gearing is an example of the benefits of:
When someone says that they're "buying American dollars" (USD), what type of asset are they probably buying? They're probably buying:
Question 320 foreign exchange rate, monetary policy, American and European terms
Investors expect the Reserve Bank of Australia (RBA) to decrease the overnight cash rate at their next meeting.
Then unexpectedly, the RBA announce that they will keep the policy rate unchanged.
What do you expect to happen to Australia's exchange rate in the short term? The Australian dollar is likely to:
Find Ching-A-Lings Corporation's Cash Flow From Assets (CFFA), also known as Free Cash Flow to the Firm (FCFF), over the year ending 30th June 2013.
Ching-A-Lings Corp | ||
Income Statement for | ||
year ending 30th June 2013 | ||
$m | ||
Sales | 100 | |
COGS | 20 | |
Depreciation | 20 | |
Rent expense | 11 | |
Interest expense | 19 | |
Taxable Income | 30 | |
Taxes at 30% | 9 | |
Net income | 21 | |
Ching-A-Lings Corp | ||
Balance Sheet | ||
as at 30th June | 2013 | 2012 |
$m | $m | |
Inventory | 49 | 38 |
Trade debtors | 14 | 2 |
Rent paid in advance | 5 | 5 |
PPE | 400 | 400 |
Total assets | 468 | 445 |
Trade creditors | 4 | 10 |
Bond liabilities | 200 | 190 |
Contributed equity | 145 | 145 |
Retained profits | 119 | 100 |
Total L and OE | 468 | 445 |
Note: All figures are given in millions of dollars ($m).
The cash flow from assets was:
An equity index stands at 100 points and the one year equity futures price is 102.
The equity index is expected to have a dividend yield of 4% pa. Assume that investors are risk-neutral so their total required return on the shares is the same as the risk free Treasury bond yield which is 10% pa. Both are given as discrete effective annual rates.
Assuming that the equity index is fairly priced, an arbitrageur would recognise that the equity futures are:
A share will pay its next dividend of ##C_1## in one year, and will continue to pay a dividend every year after that forever, growing at a rate of ##g##. So the next dividend will be ##C_2=C_1 (1+g)^1##, then ##C_3=C_2 (1+g)^1##, and so on forever.
The current price of the share is ##P_0## and its required return is ##r##
Which of the following is NOT equal to the expected share price in 2 years ##(P_2)## just after the dividend at that time ##(C_2)## has been paid?
A firm wishes to raise $50 million now. They will issue 5% pa semi-annual coupon bonds that will mature in 10 years and have a face value of $100 each. Bond yields are 5% pa, given as an APR compounding every 6 months, and the yield curve is flat.
How many bonds should the firm issue?
Question 821 option, option profit, option payoff at maturity, no explanation
You just paid $4 for a 3 month European style call option on a stock currently priced at $47 with a strike price of $50. The stock’s next dividend will be $1 in 4 months’ time. Note that the dividend is paid after the option matures. Which of the below statements is NOT correct?
Below is the Australian federal government’s budget balance as a percent of GDP. Note that the columns to the right of the vertical black line were a forecast at the time. The x-axis shows financial years, so for example the 06/07 financial year represents the time period from 1 July 2006 to 30 June 2007.
Comparing the 2008/09 financial year to the previous one, the Australian federal government implemented:
A non-dividend paying stock has a current price of $20.
The risk free rate is 5% pa given as a continuously compounded rate.
A 2 year futures contract on the stock has a futures price of $24.
You suspect that the futures contract is mis-priced and would like to conduct a risk-free arbitrage that requires zero capital. Which of the following steps about arbitraging the situation is NOT correct?