# Fight Finance

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One of Miller and Modigliani's (M&M's) important insights is that a firm's managers should not try to achieve a particular level of leverage in a world with zero taxes and perfect information since investors can make their own leverage. Therefore corporate capital structure policy is irrelevant since investors can achieve their own desired leverage at the personal level by borrowing or lending on their own.

This principal of 'home-made' or 'do-it-yourself' leverage can also be applied to other topics. Read the following statements to decide which are true:

(I) Payout policy: a firm's managers should not try to achieve a particular pattern of equity payout.

(II) Agency costs: a firm's managers should not try to minimise agency costs.

(III) Diversification: a firm's managers should not try to diversify across industries.

(IV) Shareholder wealth: a firm's managers should not try to maximise shareholders' wealth.

Which of the above statement(s) are true?

Which one of the following will have no effect on net income (NI) but decrease cash flow from assets (CFFA or FFCF) in this year for a tax-paying firm, all else remaining constant?

Remember:

$$NI=(Rev-COGS-FC-Depr-IntExp).(1-t_c )$$ $$CFFA=NI+Depr-CapEx - ΔNWC+IntExp$$

An expansion option is best modeled as a or option?

Which of the following is NOT a synonym of 'required return'?

The below graph shows a project's net present value (NPV) against its annual discount rate.

Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

Here is a table of stock prices and returns. Which of the statements below the table is NOT correct?

 Price and Return Population Statistics Time Prices LGDR GDR NDR 0 100 1 99 -0.010050 0.990000 -0.010000 2 180.40 0.600057 1.822222 0.822222 3 112.73 0.470181 0.624889 0.375111 Arithmetic average 0.0399 1.1457 0.1457 Arithmetic standard deviation 0.4384 0.5011 0.5011

The following cash flows are expected:

• A perpetuity of yearly payments of $30, with the first payment in 5 years (first payment at t=5, which continues every year after that forever). • One payment of$100 in 6 years and 3 months (t=6.25).

What is the NPV of the cash flows if the discount rate is 10% given as an effective annual rate?

Fred owns some BHP shares. He has calculated BHP’s monthly returns for each month in the past 30 years using this formula:

$$r_\text{t monthly}=\ln⁡ \left( \dfrac{P_t}{P_{t-1}} \right)$$

He then took the arithmetic average and found it to be 0.8% per month using this formula:

$$\bar{r}_\text{monthly}= \dfrac{ \displaystyle\sum\limits_{t=1}^T{\left( r_\text{t monthly} \right)} }{T} =0.008=0.8\% \text{ per month}$$

He also found the standard deviation of these monthly returns which was 15% per month:

$$\sigma_\text{monthly} = \dfrac{ \displaystyle\sum\limits_{t=1}^T{\left( \left( r_\text{t monthly} - \bar{r}_\text{monthly} \right)^2 \right)} }{T} =0.15=15\%\text{ per month}$$

Assume that the past historical average return is the true population average of future expected returns and the stock's returns calculated above $(r_\text{t monthly})$ are normally distributed. Which of the below statements about Fred’s BHP shares is NOT correct?

Which of the following statements about ‘negative gearing’ is NOT correct?

A one year European-style call option has a strike price of $4. The option's underlying stock currently trades at$5, pays no dividends and its standard deviation of continuously compounded returns is 47% pa.

The risk-free interest rate is 10% pa continuously compounded.

Use the Black-Scholes-Merton formula to calculate the option price. The call option price now is: