The following equation is the Dividend Discount Model, also known as the 'Gordon Growth Model' or the 'Perpetuity with growth' equation.
### P_{0} = \frac{C_1}{r_{\text{eff}} - g_{\text{eff}}} ###
What would you call the expression ## C_1/P_0 ##?
The following is the Dividend Discount Model used to price stocks:
### p_0=\frac{d_1}{r-g} ###
Which of the following statements about the Dividend Discount Model is NOT correct?
A 60-day Bank Accepted Bill has a face value of $1,000,000. The interest rate is 8% pa and there are 365 days in the year. What is its price now?
You believe that the price of a share will fall significantly very soon, but the rest of the market does not. The market thinks that the share price will remain the same. Assuming that your prediction will soon be true, which of the following trades is a bad idea? In other words, which trade will NOT make money or prevent losses?
One year ago you bought $100,000 of shares partly funded using a margin loan. The margin loan size was $70,000 and the other $30,000 was your own wealth or 'equity' in the share assets.
The interest rate on the margin loan was 7.84% pa.
Over the year, the shares produced a dividend yield of 4% pa and a capital gain of 5% pa.
What was the total return on your wealth? Ignore taxes, assume that all cash flows (interest payments and dividends) were paid and received at the end of the year, and all rates above are effective annual rates.
Hint: Remember that wealth in this context is your equity (E) in the house asset (V = D+E) which is funded by the loan (D) and your deposit or equity (E).
Below are some statements about loans and bonds. The first descriptive sentence is correct. But one of the second sentences about the loans' or bonds' prices is not correct. Which statement is NOT correct? Assume that interest rates are positive.
Note that coupons or interest payments are the periodic payments made throughout a bond or loan's life. The face or par value of a bond or loan is the amount paid at the end when the debt matures.
Question 882 Asian currency crisis, foreign exchange rate, original sin, no explanation
In the 1997 Asian currency crisis, the businesses most vulnerable to bankruptcy were those that:
Below is a table of the 'Risk-weights for residential mortgages' as shown in APRA Basel 3 Prudential Standard APS 112 Capital Adequacy: Standardised Approach to Credit Risk January 2013.
LVR (%) |
Standard eligible mortgages |
Non-standard eligible mortgages |
||
|
Risk-weight (no mortgage insurance) % |
Risk-weight (with at least 40% of the mortgage insured by an acceptable LMI) % |
Risk-weight (no mortgage insurance) % |
Risk-weight (with at least 40% of the mortgage insured by an acceptable LMI) % |
0 – 60 |
35 |
35 |
50 |
35 |
60.01 – 80 |
35 |
35 |
75 |
50 |
80.01 – 90 |
50 |
35 |
100 |
75 |
90.01 – 100 |
75 |
50 |
100 |
75 |
> 100.01 |
100 |
75 |
100 |
100 |
A bank is considering granting a home loan to a man to buy a house worth $1.25 million using his own funds and the loan. The loan would be standard with no lenders mortgage insurance (LMI) and an LVR of 80%.
What is the minimum regulatory capital that the bank requires to grant the home loan under the Basel 3 Accord? Ignore the capital conservation buffer.
Which type of business organisation has the most checks and balances against the detrimental effects of the principal-agent problem since it's potentially the most exposed?