The following equation is the Dividend Discount Model, also known as the 'Gordon Growth Model' or the 'Perpetuity with growth' equation.
### P_{0} = \frac{C_1}{r_{\text{eff}} - g_{\text{eff}}} ###
What would you call the expression ## C_1/P_0 ##?
A stock pays semi-annual dividends. It just paid a dividend of $10. The growth rate in the dividend is 1% every 6 months, given as an effective 6 month rate. You estimate that the stock's required return is 21% pa, as an effective annual rate.
Using the dividend discount model, what will be the share price?
A text book publisher is thinking of asking some teachers to write a new textbook at a cost of $100,000, payable now. The book would be written, printed and ready to sell to students in 2 years. It will be ready just before semester begins.
A cash flow of $100 would be made from each book sold, after all costs such as printing and delivery. There are 600 students per semester. Assume that every student buys a new text book. Remember that there are 2 semesters per year and students buy text books at the beginning of the semester.
Assume that text book publishers will sell the books at the same price forever and that the number of students is constant.
If the discount rate is 8% pa, given as an effective annual rate, what is the NPV of the project?
Which one of the following bonds is trading at par?
Find World Bar's Cash Flow From Assets (CFFA), also known as Free Cash Flow to the Firm (FCFF), over the year ending 30th June 2013.
World Bar | ||
Income Statement for | ||
year ending 30th June 2013 | ||
$m | ||
Sales | 300 | |
COGS | 150 | |
Operating expense | 50 | |
Depreciation | 40 | |
Interest expense | 10 | |
Taxable income | 50 | |
Tax at 30% | 15 | |
Net income | 35 | |
World Bar | ||
Balance Sheet | ||
as at 30th June | 2013 | 2012 |
$m | $m | |
Assets | ||
Current assets | 200 | 230 |
PPE | ||
Cost | 400 | 400 |
Accumul. depr. | 75 | 35 |
Carrying amount | 325 | 365 |
Total assets | 525 | 595 |
Liabilities | ||
Current liabilities | 150 | 205 |
Non-current liabilities | 235 | 250 |
Owners' equity | ||
Retained earnings | 100 | 100 |
Contributed equity | 40 | 40 |
Total L and OE | 525 | 595 |
Note: all figures above and below are given in millions of dollars ($m).
Private equity firms are known to buy medium sized private companies operating in the same industry, merge them together into a larger company, and then sell it off in a public float (initial public offering, IPO).
If medium-sized private companies trade at PE ratios of 5 and larger listed companies trade at PE ratios of 15, what return can be achieved from this strategy?
Assume that:
- The medium-sized companies can be bought, merged and sold in an IPO instantaneously.
- There are no costs of finding, valuing, merging and restructuring the medium sized companies. Also, there is no competition to buy the medium-sized companies from other private equity firms.
- The large merged firm's earnings are the sum of the medium firms' earnings.
- The only reason for the difference in medium and large firm's PE ratios is due to the illiquidity of the medium firms' shares.
- Return is defined as: ##r_{0→1} = (p_1-p_0+c_1)/p_0## , where time zero is just before the merger and time one is just after.
What is the correlation of a variable X with a constant C?
The corr(X, C) or ##\rho_{X,C}## equals:
The following cash flows are expected:
- A perpetuity of yearly payments of $30, with the first payment in 5 years (first payment at t=5, which continues every year after that forever).
- One payment of $100 in 6 years and 3 months (t=6.25).
What is the NPV of the cash flows if the discount rate is 10% given as an effective annual rate?
Question 802 negative gearing, leverage, capital structure, no explanation
Which of the following statements about ‘negative gearing’ is NOT correct?