The following equation is called the Dividend Discount Model (DDM), Gordon Growth Model or the perpetuity with growth formula: ### P_0 = \frac{ C_1 }{ r - g } ###
What is ##g##? The value ##g## is the long term expected:
A person is thinking about borrowing $100 from the bank at 7% pa and investing it in shares with an expected return of 10% pa. One year later the person intends to sell the shares and pay back the loan in full. Both the loan and the shares are fairly priced.
What is the Net Present Value (NPV) of this one year investment? Note that you are asked to find the present value (##V_0##), not the value in one year (##V_1##).
All things remaining equal, the variance of a portfolio of two positively-weighted stocks rises as:
A stock pays annual dividends. It just paid a dividend of $5. The growth rate in the dividend is 1% pa. You estimate that the stock's required return is 8% pa. Both the discount rate and growth rate are given as effective annual rates.
Using the dividend discount model, what will be the share price?
A company announces that it will pay a dividend, as the market expected. The company's shares trade on the stock exchange which is open from 10am in the morning to 4pm in the afternoon each weekday. When would the share price be expected to fall by the amount of the dividend? Ignore taxes.
The share price is expected to fall during the:
An investor bought a 5 year government bond with a 2% pa coupon rate at par. Coupons are paid semi-annually. The face value is $100.
Calculate the bond's new price 8 months later after yields have increased to 3% pa. Note that both yields are given as APR's compounding semi-annually. Assume that the yield curve was flat before the change in yields, and remained flat afterwards as well.
Question 768 accounting terminology, book and market values, no explanation
Accountants and finance professionals have lots of names for the same things which can be quite confusing.
Which of the following groups of items are NOT synonyms?
Question 923 omitted variable bias, CAPM, single factor model, single index model, no explanation
Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) and the Single Index Model (SIM) are single factor models whose only risk factor is the market portfolio’s return. Say a Taxi company and an Umbrella company are influenced by two factors, the market portfolio return and rainfall. When it rains, both the Taxi and Umbrella companies’ stock prices do well. When there’s no rain, both do poorly. Assume that rainfall risk is a systematic risk that cannot be diversified and that rainfall has zero correlation with the market portfolio’s returns.
Which of the following statements about these two stocks is NOT correct?
The CAPM and SIM:
You are an equities analyst trying to value the equity of the Australian supermarket conglomerate Woolworths, with ticker WOW. In Australia, listed companies like Woolworths tend to pay dividends every 6 months. The payment around September is the final dividend and the payment around March is called the interim dividend. Both occur annually.
- Today is mid-November 2018.
- WOW's last final dividend of $0.50 was two months ago in mid-September 2018.
- WOW's last interim dividend of $0.43 was eight months ago in mid-March 2018.
- Judging by the dividend history and WOW's prospects, you judge that the growth rate in the dividends will be 3% pa forever.
- Assume that WOW's total cost of equity is 6.5% pa. All rates are quoted as nominal effective rates.
- The dividends are nominal cash flows and the inflation rate is 2.5% pa.
What should be the current share price of WOW?