**Question 31** DDM, perpetuity with growth, effective rate conversion

What is the NPV of the following series of cash flows when the discount rate is **5**% given as an effective **annual** rate?

The first payment of $10 is in 4 years, followed by payments every 6 months forever after that which shrink by 2% every 6 months. That is, the growth rate every 6 months is actually **negative 2%**, given as an effective **6 month** rate. So the payment at ## t=4.5 ## years will be ## 10(1-0.02)^1=9.80 ##, and so on.