Question 31 DDM, perpetuity with growth, effective rate conversion
What is the NPV of the following series of cash flows when the discount rate is 5% given as an effective annual rate?
The first payment of $10 is in 4 years, followed by payments every 6 months forever after that which shrink by 2% every 6 months. That is, the growth rate every 6 months is actually negative 2%, given as an effective 6 month rate. So the payment at ## t=4.5 ## years will be ## 10(1-0.02)^1=9.80 ##, and so on.
A project to build a toll road will take 3 years to complete, costing three payments of $50 million, paid at the start of each year (at times 0, 1, and 2).
After completion, the toll road will yield a constant $10 million at the end of each year forever with no costs. So the first payment will be at t=4.
The required return of the project is 10% pa given as an effective nominal rate. All cash flows are nominal.
What is the payback period?
Portfolio Details | ||||||
Stock | Expected return |
Standard deviation |
Correlation | Beta | Dollars invested |
|
A | 0.2 | 0.4 | 0.12 | 0.5 | 40 | |
B | 0.3 | 0.8 | 1.5 | 80 | ||
What is the beta of the above portfolio?
You just started work at your new job which pays $48,000 per year.
The human resources department have given you the option of being paid at the end of every week or every month.
Assume that there are 4 weeks per month, 12 months per year and 48 weeks per year.
Bank interest rates are 12% pa given as an APR compounding per month.
What is the dollar gain over one year, as a net present value, of being paid every week rather than every month?
A 90-day $1 million Bank Accepted Bill (BAB) was bought for $990,000 and sold 30 days later for $996,000 (at t=30 days).
What was the total return, capital return and income return over the 30 days it was held?
Despite the fact that money market instruments such as bills are normally quoted with simple interest rates, please calculate your answers as compound interest rates, specifically, as effective 30-day rates, which is how the below answer choices are listed.
##r_\text{total}##, ##r_\text{capital}##, ## r_\text{income}##
One formula for calculating a levered firm's free cash flow (FFCF, or CFFA) is to use net operating profit after tax (NOPAT).
###\begin{aligned} FFCF &= NOPAT + Depr - CapEx -\Delta NWC \\ &= (Rev - COGS - Depr - FC)(1-t_c) + Depr - CapEx -\Delta NWC \\ \end{aligned} \\###
A firm has a debt-to-equity ratio of 60%. What is its debt-to-assets ratio?
The DuPont formula is:
###\dfrac{\text{Net Profit}}{\text{Sales}} \times \dfrac{\text{Sales}}{\text{Total Assets}} \times \dfrac{\text{Total Assets}}{\text{Owners' Equity}}###
Which of the following statements about the DuPont formula is NOT correct?
Question 884 monetary policy, impossible trinity, foreign exchange rate, no explanation
According to the impossible trinity, a currency can only have two of these three desirable traits: be fixed against the USD; convertible to and from USD for traders and investors so there are open goods, services and capital markets; and allow independent monetary policy set by the country’s central bank, independent of the US central bank.
Which of the following exchange rate regimes sacrifices fixing the exchange rate to the USD? In other words, which regime uses a floating exchange rate?
A Malaysian man wishes to convert 1 million Malaysian Ringgit (MYR) into Indian Rupees (IND). The exchange rate is 4.2 MYR per USD and 71 IND per USD. How much is the MYR 1 million worth in IND?