Question 31 DDM, perpetuity with growth, effective rate conversion
What is the NPV of the following series of cash flows when the discount rate is 5% given as an effective annual rate?
The first payment of $10 is in 4 years, followed by payments every 6 months forever after that which shrink by 2% every 6 months. That is, the growth rate every 6 months is actually negative 2%, given as an effective 6 month rate. So the payment at ## t=4.5 ## years will be ## 10(1-0.02)^1=9.80 ##, and so on.
Due to floods overseas, there is a cut in the supply of the mineral iron ore and its price increases dramatically. An Australian iron ore mining company therefore expects a large but temporary increase in its profit and cash flows. The mining company does not have any positive NPV projects to begin, so what should it do? Select the most correct answer.
The security market line (SML) shows the relationship between beta and expected return.
Buying investment projects that plot above the SML would lead to:
A share was bought for $4 and paid an dividend of $0.50 one year later (at t=1 year).
Just after the dividend was paid, the share price fell to $3.50 (at t=1 year). What were the total return, capital return and income returns given as effective annual rates? The answer choices are given in the same order:
##r_\text{total}##, ##r_\text{capital}##, ## r_\text{income}##
Question 315 foreign exchange rate, American and European terms
If the current AUD exchange rate is USD 0.9686 = AUD 1, what is the European terms quote of the AUD against the USD?
Which of the following statements about effective rates and annualised percentage rates (APR's) is NOT correct?
Question 536 idiom, bond pricing, capital structure, leverage
The expression 'my word is my bond' is often used in everyday language to make a serious promise.
Why do you think this expression uses the metaphor of a bond rather than a share?
Question 907 continuously compounding rate, return types, return distribution, price gains and returns over time
For an asset's price to double from say $1 to $2 in one year, what must its continuously compounded return ##(r_{CC})## be? If the price now is ##P_0## and the price in one year is ##P_1## then the continuously compounded return over the next year is:
###r_\text{CC annual} = \ln{\left[ \dfrac{P_1}{P_0} \right]} = \text{LGDR}_\text{annual}###By convention, money market securities' yields are always quoted as: