# Fight Finance

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A stock pays annual dividends which are expected to continue forever. It just paid a dividend of 10. The growth rate in the dividend is 2% pa. You estimate that the stock's required return is 10% pa. Both the discount rate and growth rate are given as effective annual rates. Using the dividend discount model, what will be the share price? Which of the following discount rates should be the highest for a levered company? Ignore the costs of financial distress. The total return of any asset can be broken down in different ways. One possible way is to use the dividend discount model (or Gordon growth model): $$p_0 = \frac{c_1}{r_\text{total}-r_\text{capital}}$$ Which, since $c_1/p_0$ is the income return ($r_\text{income}$), can be expressed as: $$r_\text{total}=r_\text{income}+r_\text{capital}$$ So the total return of an asset is the income component plus the capital or price growth component. Another way to break up total return is to use the Capital Asset Pricing Model: $$r_\text{total}=r_\text{f}+β(r_\text{m}- r_\text{f})$$ $$r_\text{total}=r_\text{time value}+r_\text{risk premium}$$ So the risk free rate is the time value of money and the term $β(r_\text{m}- r_\text{f})$ is the compensation for taking on systematic risk. Using the above theory and your general knowledge, which of the below equations, if any, are correct? (I) $r_\text{income}=r_\text{time value}$ (II) $r_\text{income}=r_\text{risk premium}$ (III) $r_\text{capital}=r_\text{time value}$ (IV) $r_\text{capital}=r_\text{risk premium}$ (V) $r_\text{income}+r_\text{capital}=r_\text{time value}+r_\text{risk premium}$ Which of the equations are correct? A new company's Firm Free Cash Flow (FFCF, same as CFFA) is forecast in the graph below. To value the firm's assets, the terminal value needs to be calculated using the perpetuity with growth formula: $$V_{\text{terminal, }t-1} = \dfrac{FFCF_{\text{terminal, }t}}{r-g}$$ Which point corresponds to the best time to calculate the terminal value? One formula for calculating a levered firm's free cash flow (FFCF, or CFFA) is to use net operating profit after tax (NOPAT). \begin{aligned} FFCF &= NOPAT + Depr - CapEx -\Delta NWC \\ &= (Rev - COGS - Depr - FC)(1-t_c) + Depr - CapEx -\Delta NWC \\ \end{aligned} \\ Does this annual FFCF or the annual interest tax shield? The below screenshot of Commonwealth Bank of Australia's (CBA) details were taken from the Google Finance website on 7 Nov 2014. Some information has been deliberately blanked out. What was CBA's backwards-looking price-earnings ratio? The perpetuity with growth formula, also known as the dividend discount model (DDM) or Gordon growth model, is appropriate for valuing a company's shares. $P_0$ is the current share price, $C_1$ is next year's expected dividend, $r$ is the total required return and $g$ is the expected growth rate of the dividend. $$P_0=\dfrac{C_1}{r-g}$$ The below graph shows the expected future price path of the company's shares. Which of the following statements about the graph is NOT correct? If trader A has sold the right that allows counterparty B to buy the underlying asset from him at maturity if counterparty B wants then trader A is: A trader sells a one year futures contract on crude oil. The contract is for the delivery of 1,000 barrels. The current futures price is38.94 per barrel. The initial margin is $3,410 per contract, and the maintenance margin is$3,100 per contract.

What is the smallest price change that would lead to a margin call for the seller?

A real estate agent says that the price of a house in Sydney Australia is approximately equal to the gross weekly rent times 1000.

What type of valuation method is the real estate agent using?