The following is the Dividend Discount Model (DDM) used to price stocks:
### P_0 = \frac{d_1}{r-g} ###Assume that the assumptions of the DDM hold and that the time period is measured in years.
Which of the following is equal to the expected dividend in 3 years, ## d_3 ##?
Find Piano Bar's Cash Flow From Assets (CFFA), also known as Free Cash Flow to the Firm (FCFF), over the year ending 30th June 2013.
Piano Bar | ||
Income Statement for | ||
year ending 30th June 2013 | ||
$m | ||
Sales | 310 | |
COGS | 185 | |
Operating expense | 20 | |
Depreciation | 15 | |
Interest expense | 10 | |
Income before tax | 80 | |
Tax at 30% | 24 | |
Net income | 56 | |
Piano Bar | ||
Balance Sheet | ||
as at 30th June | 2013 | 2012 |
$m | $m | |
Assets | ||
Current assets | 240 | 230 |
PPE | ||
Cost | 420 | 400 |
Accumul. depr. | 50 | 35 |
Carrying amount | 370 | 365 |
Total assets | 610 | 595 |
Liabilities | ||
Current liabilities | 180 | 190 |
Non-current liabilities | 290 | 265 |
Owners' equity | ||
Retained earnings | 90 | 90 |
Contributed equity | 50 | 50 |
Total L and OE | 610 | 595 |
Note: all figures are given in millions of dollars ($m).
Question 239 income and capital returns, inflation, real and nominal returns and cash flows, interest only loan
A bank grants a borrower an interest-only residential mortgage loan with a very large 50% deposit and a nominal interest rate of 6% that is not expected to change. Assume that inflation is expected to be a constant 2% pa over the life of the loan. Ignore credit risk.
From the bank's point of view, what is the long term expected nominal capital return of the loan asset?
The total return of any asset can be broken down in different ways. One possible way is to use the dividend discount model (or Gordon growth model):
###p_0 = \frac{c_1}{r_\text{total}-r_\text{capital}}###
Which, since ##c_1/p_0## is the income return (##r_\text{income}##), can be expressed as:
###r_\text{total}=r_\text{income}+r_\text{capital}###
So the total return of an asset is the income component plus the capital or price growth component.
Another way to break up total return is to use the Capital Asset Pricing Model:
###r_\text{total}=r_\text{f}+β(r_\text{m}- r_\text{f})###
###r_\text{total}=r_\text{time value}+r_\text{risk premium}###
So the risk free rate is the time value of money and the term ##β(r_\text{m}- r_\text{f})## is the compensation for taking on systematic risk.
Using the above theory and your general knowledge, which of the below equations, if any, are correct?
(I) ##r_\text{income}=r_\text{time value}##
(II) ##r_\text{income}=r_\text{risk premium}##
(III) ##r_\text{capital}=r_\text{time value}##
(IV) ##r_\text{capital}=r_\text{risk premium}##
(V) ##r_\text{income}+r_\text{capital}=r_\text{time value}+r_\text{risk premium}##
Which of the equations are correct?
Value the following business project to manufacture a new product.
Project Data | ||
Project life | 2 yrs | |
Initial investment in equipment | $6m | |
Depreciation of equipment per year | $3m | |
Expected sale price of equipment at end of project | $0.6m | |
Unit sales per year | 4m | |
Sale price per unit | $8 | |
Variable cost per unit | $5 | |
Fixed costs per year, paid at the end of each year | $1m | |
Interest expense per year | 0 | |
Tax rate | 30% | |
Weighted average cost of capital after tax per annum | 10% | |
Notes
- The firm's current assets and current liabilities are $3m and $2m respectively right now. This net working capital will not be used in this project, it will be used in other unrelated projects.
Due to the project, current assets (mostly inventory) will grow by $2m initially (at t = 0), and then by $0.2m at the end of the first year (t=1).
Current liabilities (mostly trade creditors) will increase by $0.1m at the end of the first year (t=1).
At the end of the project, the net working capital accumulated due to the project can be sold for the same price that it was bought. - The project cost $0.5m to research which was incurred one year ago.
Assumptions
- All cash flows occur at the start or end of the year as appropriate, not in the middle or throughout the year.
- All rates and cash flows are real. The inflation rate is 3% pa.
- All rates are given as effective annual rates.
- The business considering the project is run as a 'sole tradership' (run by an individual without a company) and is therefore eligible for a 50% capital gains tax discount when the equipment is sold, as permitted by the Australian Tax Office.
What is the expected net present value (NPV) of the project?
Question 455 income and capital returns, payout policy, DDM, market efficiency
A fairly priced unlevered firm plans to pay a dividend of $1 next year (t=1) which is expected to grow by 3% pa every year after that. The firm's required return on equity is 8% pa.
The firm is thinking about reducing its future dividend payments by 10% so that it can use the extra cash to invest in more projects which are expected to return 8% pa, and have the same risk as the existing projects. Therefore, next year's dividend will be $0.90. No new equity or debt will be issued to fund the new projects, they'll all be funded by the cut in dividends.
What will be the stock's new annual capital return (proportional increase in price per year) if the change in payout policy goes ahead?
Assume that payout policy is irrelevant to firm value (so there's no signalling effects) and that all rates are effective annual rates.
Question 526 real and nominal returns and cash flows, inflation, no explanation
How can a nominal cash flow be precisely converted into a real cash flow?
In general, stock prices tend to rise. What does this mean for futures on equity?
Use the below information to value a levered company with constant annual perpetual cash flows from assets. The next cash flow will be generated in one year from now, so a perpetuity can be used to value this firm. Both the operating and firm free cash flows are constant (but not equal to each other).
Data on a Levered Firm with Perpetual Cash Flows | ||
Item abbreviation | Value | Item full name |
##\text{OFCF}## | $48.5m | Operating free cash flow |
##\text{FFCF or CFFA}## | $50m | Firm free cash flow or cash flow from assets |
##g## | 0% pa | Growth rate of OFCF and FFCF |
##\text{WACC}_\text{BeforeTax}## | 10% pa | Weighted average cost of capital before tax |
##\text{WACC}_\text{AfterTax}## | 9.7% pa | Weighted average cost of capital after tax |
##r_\text{D}## | 5% pa | Cost of debt |
##r_\text{EL}## | 11.25% pa | Cost of levered equity |
##D/V_L## | 20% pa | Debt to assets ratio, where the asset value includes tax shields |
##t_c## | 30% | Corporate tax rate |
What is the value of the levered firm including interest tax shields?
Question 881 Nixon Shock, Bretton Woods, foreign exchange rate, foreign exchange system history, no explanation
In the ‘Nixon Shock’ on August 15, 1971, the United States government: