# Fight Finance

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The required return of a project is 10%, given as an effective annual rate. Assume that the cash flows shown in the table are paid all at once at the given point in time.

What is the Net Present Value (NPV) of the project?

 Project Cash Flows Time (yrs) Cash flow ($) 0 -100 1 0 2 121 A firm's weighted average cost of capital before tax ($r_\text{WACC before tax}$) would increase due to: Question 99 capital structure, interest tax shield, Miller and Modigliani, trade off theory of capital structure A firm changes its capital structure by issuing a large amount of debt and using the funds to repurchase shares. Its assets are unchanged. Assume that: • The firm and individual investors can borrow at the same rate and have the same tax rates. • The firm's debt and shares are fairly priced and the shares are repurchased at the market price, not at a premium. • There are no market frictions relating to debt such as asymmetric information or transaction costs. • Shareholders wealth is measured in terms of utiliity. Shareholders are wealth-maximising and risk-averse. They have a preferred level of overall leverage. Before the firm's capital restructure all shareholders were optimally levered. According to Miller and Modigliani's theory, which statement is correct? The following cash flows are expected: • 10 yearly payments of$60, with the first payment in 3 years from now (first payment at t=3).
• 1 payment of \$400 in 5 years and 6 months (t=5.5) from now.

What is the NPV of the cash flows if the discount rate is 10% given as an effective annual rate?

A fairly priced stock has a beta that is the same as the market portfolio's beta. Treasury bonds yield 5% pa and the market portfolio's expected return is 10% pa. What is the expected return of the stock?

In the dividend discount model:

$$P_0= \frac{d_1}{r-g}$$

The pronumeral $g$ is supposed to be the:

An expansion option is best modeled as a or option?

The expression 'my word is my bond' is often used in everyday language to make a serious promise.

Why do you think this expression uses the metaphor of a bond rather than a share?

In the dividend discount model (DDM), share prices fall when dividends are paid. Let the high price before the fall be called the peak, and the low price after the fall be called the trough.

$$P_0=\dfrac{C_1}{r-g}$$

Which of the following statements about the DDM is NOT correct?

Which of the following terms about options are NOT synonyms?