Fight Finance

Question 48  IRR, NPV, bond pricing, premium par and discount bonds, market efficiency

The theory of fixed interest bond pricing is an application of the theory of Net Present Value (NPV). Also, a 'fairly priced' asset is not over- or under-priced. Buying or selling a fairly priced asset has an NPV of zero.

Considering this, which of the following statements is NOT correct?

(a) The internal rate of return (IRR) of buying a fairly priced bond is equal to the bond's yield.

(b) The Present Value of a fairly priced bond's coupons and face value is equal to its price.

(c) If a fairly priced bond's required return rises, its price will fall.

(d) Fairly priced premium bonds' yields are less than their coupon rates, prices are more than their face values, and the NPV of buying them is therefore positive.

(e) The NPV of buying a fairly priced bond is zero.

Question 65  annuity with growth, needs refinement

Which of the below formulas gives the present value of an annuity with growth?

(a) ##\dfrac{C_1}{r-g}\left(1-\dfrac{1}{(1+r)^T}\right)##

(b) ##\dfrac{C_1(1+g)^T}{r-g}\left(1-\dfrac{1}{(1+r)^T}\right)##

(c) ##\dfrac{C_1}{r-g}\left(1-\dfrac{1+g}{(1+r)^T}\right)##

(d) ##\dfrac{C_1}{r-g}\left(1-\left(\dfrac{1+g}{1+r}\right)^T \right)##

(e) ##\dfrac{C_1(1+g)}{r-g}\left(1-\dfrac{1}{(1+r)^T}\right)##

Hint: The equation of a perpetuity without growth is: ###V_\text{0, perp without growth} = \frac{C_\text{1}}{r}###

The formula for the present value of an annuity without growth is derived from the formula for a perpetuity without growth.

The idea is than an annuity with T payments from t=1 to T inclusive is equivalent to a perpetuity starting at t=1 with fixed positive cash flows, plus a perpetuity starting T periods later (t=T+1) with fixed negative cash flows. The positive and negative cash flows after time period T cancel each other out, leaving the positive cash flows between t=1 to T, which is the annuity.

###\begin{aligned} V_\text{0, annuity} &= V_\text{0, perp without growth from t=1} - V_\text{0, perp without growth from t=T+1} \\ &= \dfrac{C_\text{1}}{r} - \dfrac{ \left( \dfrac{C_\text{T+1}}{r} \right) }{(1+r)^T} \\ &= \dfrac{C_\text{1}}{r} - \dfrac{ \left( \dfrac{C_\text{1}}{r} \right) }{(1+r)^T} \\ &= \dfrac{C_\text{1}}{r}\left(1 - \dfrac{1}{(1+r)^T}\right) \\ \end{aligned}###

The equation of a perpetuity with growth is:

###V_\text{0, perp with growth} = \dfrac{C_\text{1}}{r-g}###

Question 127  interest expense

A zero coupon bond that matures in 6 months has a face value of $1,000.

The firm that issued this bond is trying to forecast its income statement for the year. It needs to calculate the interest expense of the bond this year.

The bond is highly illiquid and hasn't traded on the market. But the finance department have assessed the bond's fair value to be $950 and this is its book value right now at the start of the year.

Assume that:

• the firm uses the 'effective interest method' to calculate interest expense.
• the market value of the bond is the same as the book value.
• the firm is only interested in this bond's interest expense. Do not include the interest expense for a new bond issued to refinance the current one, as would normally happen.

What will be the interest expense of the bond this year for the purpose of forecasting the income statement?

(a) $0

(b) $50.0000

(c) $51.3158

(d) $102.6316

(e) $1,000.0000

Question 150  DDM, effective rate

A share just paid its semi-annual dividend of $10. The dividend is expected to grow at 2% every 6 months forever. This 2% growth rate is an effective 6 month rate. Therefore the next dividend will be $10.20 in six months. The required return of the stock is 10% pa, given as an effective annual rate.

What is the price of the share now?

(a) $127.50

(b) $171.14

(c) $173.33

(d) $174.56

(e) $354.06

Question 174  profitability index

A project has the following cash flows:

Project Cash Flows
Time (yrs)	Cash flow ($)
0	-400
1	200
2	250

What is the Profitability Index (PI) of the project? Assume that the cash flows shown in the table are paid all at once at the given point in time. The required return is 10% pa, given as an effective annual rate.

(a) 0.9711

(b) 1.1750

(c) 1.3063

(d) 1.5537

(e) 1.8800

Question 204  time calculation, fully amortising loan, APR

You just signed up for a 30 year fully amortising mortgage loan with monthly payments of $1,500 per month. The interest rate is 9% pa which is not expected to change.

To your surprise, you can actually afford to pay $2,000 per month and your mortgage allows early repayments without fees. If you maintain these higher monthly payments, how long will it take to pay off your mortgage?

(a) 38.87 months, which is 3.24 yrs.

(b) 47.91 months, which is 3.99 yrs.

(c) 160.72 months, which is 13.39 yrs.

(d) 164.65 months, which is 13.72 yrs.

(e) None of the above.

Question 248  CAPM, DDM, income and capital returns

The total return of any asset can be broken down in different ways. One possible way is to use the dividend discount model (or Gordon growth model):

###p_0 = \frac{c_1}{r_\text{total}-r_\text{capital}}###

Which, since ##c_1/p_0## is the income return (##r_\text{income}##), can be expressed as:

###r_\text{total}=r_\text{income}+r_\text{capital}###

So the total return of an asset is the income component plus the capital or price growth component.

Another way to break up total return is to use the Capital Asset Pricing Model:

###r_\text{total}=r_\text{f}+β(r_\text{m}- r_\text{f})###

###r_\text{total}=r_\text{time value}+r_\text{risk premium}###

So the risk free rate is the time value of money and the term ##β(r_\text{m}- r_\text{f})## is the compensation for taking on systematic risk.

Using the above theory and your general knowledge, which of the below equations, if any, are correct?

(I) ##r_\text{income}=r_\text{time value}##

(II) ##r_\text{income}=r_\text{risk premium}##

(III) ##r_\text{capital}=r_\text{time value}##

(IV) ##r_\text{capital}=r_\text{risk premium}##

(V) ##r_\text{income}+r_\text{capital}=r_\text{time value}+r_\text{risk premium}##

Which of the equations are correct?

(a) I, IV and V only.

(b) II, III and V only.

(c) V only.

(d) All are true.

(e) None are true.

Question 291  CFFA

Find Scubar Corporation's Cash Flow From Assets (CFFA), also known as Free Cash Flow to the Firm (FCFF), over the year ending 30th June 2013.

Scubar Corp
Income Statement for
year ending 30th June 2013
	$m
Sales	200
COGS	60
Depreciation	20
Rent expense	11
Interest expense	19
Taxable Income	90
Taxes at 30%	27
Net income	63

Scubar Corp
Balance Sheet
as at 30th June	2013	2012
	$m	$m
Inventory	60	50
Trade debtors	19	6
Rent paid in advance	3	2
PPE	420	400
Total assets	502	458
Trade creditors	10	8
Bond liabilities	200	190
Contributed equity	130	130
Retained profits	162	130
Total L and OE	502	458

 

Note: All figures are given in millions of dollars ($m).

The cash flow from assets was:

(a) $40m

(b) $41m

(c) $54m

(d) $60m

(e) $74m

Question 774  leverage, WACC, real estate

One year ago you bought a $1,000,000 house partly funded using a mortgage loan. The loan size was $800,000 and the other $200,000 was your wealth or 'equity' in the house asset.

The interest rate on the home loan was 4% pa.

Over the year, the house produced a net rental yield of 2% pa and a capital gain of 2.5% pa.

Assuming that all cash flows (interest payments and net rental payments) were paid and received at the end of the year, and all rates are given as effective annual rates, what was the total return on your wealth over the past year?

(a) 0.4808% pa

(b) 2% pa

(c) 4.5% pa

(d) 6.5% pa

(e) 8.5% pa

Hint: Remember that wealth in this context is your equity (E) in the house asset (V = D+E) which is funded by the loan (D) and your deposit or equity (E).

Question 894  balance of payments, current account, no explanation

Below are four graphs of Australia's external position, published in the RBA's chart pack.

Assume that all assets and liabilities are debt which makes interest income and equity which makes dividend income.

Which of the following statements is NOT correct? As at the end of 2017, Australia’s:

(a) Trade surplus was roughly zero, so Australians exported as much as they imported.

(b) Net Income was negative, so Australians paid more dividends and interest to foreigners than they received. This is probably because Australia has greater gross foreign liabilities than gross foreign assets.

(c) Current account deficit means Australians have to lend to foreigners by buying foreigners’ debt and equity which represent net capital outflows out of Australia.

(d) Net foreign equity liabilities were negative (less than zero) so Australians had positive net foreign equity assets which means that Australians owned more foreign shares than foreigners owned of Australian shares.

(e) Persistent current account deficit will make its net foreign liabilities greater and greater.