Question 50 DDM, stock pricing, inflation, real and nominal returns and cash flows
Most listed Australian companies pay dividends twice per year, the 'interim' and 'final' dividends, which are roughly 6 months apart.
You are an equities analyst trying to value the company BHP. You decide to use the Dividend Discount Model (DDM) as a starting point, so you study BHP's dividend history and you find that BHP tends to pay the same interim and final dividend each year, and that both grow by the same rate.
You expect BHP will pay a $0.55 interim dividend in six months and a $0.55 final dividend in one year. You expect each to grow by 4% next year and forever, so the interim and final dividends next year will be $0.572 each, and so on in perpetuity.
Assume BHP's cost of equity is 8% pa. All rates are quoted as nominal effective rates. The dividends are nominal cash flows and the inflation rate is 2.5% pa.
What is the current price of a BHP share?
Stock A has a beta of 0.5 and stock B has a beta of 1. Which statement is NOT correct?
Which of the below statements about effective rates and annualised percentage rates (APR's) is NOT correct?
Question 787 fixed for floating interest rate swap, intermediated swap
The below table summarises the borrowing costs confronting two companies A and B.
Bond Market Yields | ||||
Fixed Yield to Maturity (%pa) | Floating Yield (%pa) | |||
Firm A | 2 | L - 0.1 | ||
Firm B | 2.5 | L | ||
Firm A wishes to borrow at a floating rate and Firm B wishes to borrow at a fixed rate. Design an intermediated swap (which means there will actually be two swaps) that nets a bank 0.15% and grants the remaining swap benefits to Firm A only. Which of the following statements about the swap is NOT correct?
Question 876 foreign exchange rate, forward foreign exchange rate, cross currency interest rate parity
Suppose the yield curve in the USA and Germany is flat and the:
- USD federal funds rate at the Federal Reserve is 1% pa;
- EUR deposit facility at the European Central Bank is -0.4% pa (note the negative sign);
- Spot EUR exchange rate is 1 USD per EUR;
- One year forward EUR exchange rate is 1.011 USD per EUR.
You suspect that there’s an arbitrage opportunity. Which one of the following statements about the potential arbitrage opportunity is NOT correct?
Question 907 continuously compounding rate, return types, return distribution, price gains and returns over time
For an asset's price to double from say $1 to $2 in one year, what must its continuously compounded return ##(r_{CC})## be? If the price now is ##P_0## and the price in one year is ##P_1## then the continuously compounded return over the next year is:
###r_\text{CC annual} = \ln{\left[ \dfrac{P_1}{P_0} \right]} = \text{LGDR}_\text{annual}###Question 922 Stutzer portfolio performance indicator, Sharpe ratio, no explanation
Stutzer’s Portfolio Performance Indicator (PPI) ranks portfolios similarly to what other performance metric, assuming that the portfolios’ continuously compounded returns (LGDR’s) are normally distributed?
Question 924 foreign exchange rate, forward foreign exchange rate, arbitrage, forward interest rate, no explanation
Suppose that the yield curve in the United States of America and Australia is flat and that the current:
- USD federal funds rate is 1% pa;
- AUD cash rate is 1.5% pa;
- Spot AUD exchange rate is 1 USD per AUD;
- One year forward AUD exchange rate is 0.97 USD per AUD.
You suspect that there’s an arbitrage opportunity.
Which one of the following statements about the potential arbitrage opportunity is NOT correct?
A stock's returns are normally distributed with a mean of 10% pa and a standard deviation of 20 percentage points pa. What is the 90% confidence interval of returns over the next year? Note that the Z-statistic corresponding to a one-tail:
- 90% normal probability density function is 1.282.
- 95% normal probability density function is 1.645.
- 97.5% normal probability density function is 1.960.
The 90% confidence interval of annual returns is between:
A non-dividend paying stock has a current price of $20.
The risk free rate is 5% pa given as a continuously compounded rate.
Options on the stock are currently priced at $5 for calls and $5.55 for puts where both options have a 2 year maturity and an exercise price of $24.
You suspect that the call option contract is mis-priced and would like to conduct a risk-free arbitrage that requires zero capital. Which of the following steps about arbitraging the situation is NOT correct?