# Fight Finance

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Which of the following statements about risk free government bonds is NOT correct?

Hint: Total return can be broken into income and capital returns as follows:

\begin{aligned} r_\text{total} &= \frac{c_1}{p_0} + \frac{p_1-p_0}{p_0} \\ &= r_\text{income} + r_\text{capital} \end{aligned}

The capital return is the growth rate of the price.
The income return is the periodic cash flow. For a bond this is the coupon payment.

The following equation is the Dividend Discount Model, also known as the 'Gordon Growth Model' or the 'Perpetuity with growth' equation.

$$p_0= \frac{c_1}{r-g}$$

Which expression is equal to the expected dividend return?

Over the next year, the management of an unlevered company plans to:

• Achieve firm free cash flow (FFCF or CFFA) of $1m. • Pay dividends of$1.8m
• Complete a $1.3m share buy-back. • Spend$0.8m on new buildings without buying or selling any other fixed assets. This capital expenditure is included in the CFFA figure quoted above.

Assume that:

• All amounts are received and paid at the end of the year so you can ignore the time value of money.
• The firm has sufficient retained profits to pay the dividend and complete the buy back.
• The firm plans to run a very tight ship, with no excess cash above operating requirements currently or over the next year.

How much new equity financing will the company need? In other words, what is the value of new shares that will need to be issued?

A mature firm has constant expected future earnings and dividends. Both amounts are equal. So earnings and dividends are expected to be equal and unchanging.

Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

The standard deviation and variance of a stock's annual returns are calculated over a number of years. The units of the returns are percent per annum $(\% pa)$.

What are the units of the standard deviation $(\sigma)$ and variance $(\sigma^2)$ of returns respectively?

Hint: Visit Wikipedia to understand the difference between percentage points $(\text{pp})$ and percent $(\%)$.

Which of the below formulas gives the profit $(\pi)$ from being long a call option? Let the underlying asset price at maturity be $S_T$, the exercise price be $X_T$ and the option price be $f_{LC,0}$. Note that $S_T$, $X_T$ and $f_{LC,0}$ are all positive numbers.

Alice, Bob, Chris and Delta are traders in the futures market. The following trades occur over a single day in a newly-opened equity index future that matures in one year which the exchange just made available.

1. Alice buys a future from Bob.

2. Chris buys a future from Delta.

3. Alice buys a future from Chris.

These were the only trades made in this equity index future. What was the trading volume and what is the open interest?

Which of the following statements is NOT correct? Assume that all things remain equal. So for example, don't assume that just because a company's dividends and profit rise that its required return will also rise, assume the required return stays the same.

A stock, a call, a put and a bond are available to trade. The call and put options' underlying asset is the stock they and have the same strike prices, $K_T$.

Being long the call and short the stock is equivalent to being:

Question 923  omitted variable bias, CAPM, single factor model, single index model, no explanation

Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) and the Single Index Model (SIM) are single factor models whose only risk factor is the market portfolio’s return. Say a Taxi company and an Umbrella company are influenced by two factors, the market portfolio return and rainfall. When it rains, both the Taxi and Umbrella companies’ stock prices do well. When there’s no rain, both do poorly. Assume that rainfall risk is a systematic risk that cannot be diversified and that rainfall has zero correlation with the market portfolio’s returns.

Which of the following statements about these two stocks is NOT correct?

The CAPM and SIM: