Fight Finance

Question 59  NPV

The required return of a project is 10%, given as an effective annual rate. Assume that the cash flows shown in the table are paid all at once at the given point in time.

What is the Net Present Value (NPV) of the project?

Project Cash Flows
Time (yrs)	Cash flow ($)
0	-100
1	11
2	121

(a) -100

(b) 0

(c) 10

(d) 21

(e) 132

Question 97  WACC, no explanation

A company has:

• 10 million common shares outstanding, each trading at a price of $90.
• 1 million preferred shares which have a face (or par) value of $100 and pay a constant dividend of 9% of par. They currently trade at a price of $120 each.
• Debentures that have a total face value of $60,000,000 and a yield to maturity of 6% per annum. They are publicly traded and their market price is equal to 90% of their face value.
• The risk-free rate is 5% and the market return is 10%.
• Market analysts estimate that the company's common stock has a beta of 1.2. The corporate tax rate is 30%.

What is the company's after-tax Weighted Average Cost of Capital (WACC)? Assume a classical tax system.

(a) 10.27%

(b) 10.39%

(c) 10.43%

(d) 11.47%

(e) 17.22%

Question 354  PE ratio, Multiples valuation

Which firms tend to have low forward-looking price-earnings (PE) ratios?

Only consider firms with positive earnings, disregard firms with negative earnings and therefore negative PE ratios.

(a) Illiquid small private companies.

(b) High growth technology firms.

(c) Firms expected to have temporarily low earnings over the next year, but with higher earnings later.

(d) Firms with a very low level of systematic risk.

(e) Firms whose assets include a very large proportion of cash.

Question 414  PE ratio, pay back period, no explanation

A mature firm has constant expected future earnings and dividends. Both amounts are equal. So earnings and dividends are expected to be equal and unchanging.

Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

(a) This firm's expected capital return equals zero.

(b) This firm's expected total return and income return are equal.

(c) This firm's forward looking PE ratio will equal the inverse of the firm's expected income return.

(d) This firm's forward looking PE ratio will equal the inverse of the firm's expected capital return.

(e) This firm's forward looking PE ratio is equal to the expected payback period, which is the time it will take for the sum of the cash flows to equal the share price.

Question 611  debt terminology

You owe money. Are you a or a ?

Question 645  option, no explanation

A trader buys one crude oil European style call option contract on the CME expiring in one year with an exercise price of $44 per barrel for a price of $6.64. The crude oil spot price is $40.33. If the trader doesn’t close out her contract before maturity, then at maturity she will have the:

(a) Obligation to buy the underlying oil at $44 per barrel.

(b) Obligation to sell the underlying oil at $44 per barrel.

(c) Right to buy the underlying oil at $44 per barrel if she wants.

(d) Right to sell the underlying oil at $44 per barrel if she wants.

(e) Obligation to buy the underlying oil at $44 per barrel if her counter party chooses to sell it.

Question 660  fully amortising loan, interest only loan, APR

How much more can you borrow using an interest-only loan compared to a 25-year fully amortising loan if interest rates are 6% pa compounding per month and are not expected to change? If it makes it easier, assume that you can afford to pay $2,000 per month on either loan. Express your answer as a proportional increase using the following formula:

###\text{Proportional Increase} = \dfrac{V_\text{0,interest only}}{V_\text{0,fully amortising}} - 1###

(a) 77.6034%

(b) 30.3779%

(c) 28.8603%

(d) 22.3966%

(e) 7.5304%

Question 684  future, arbitrage, no explanation

An equity index stands at 100 points and the one year equity futures price is 102.

The equity index is expected to have a dividend yield of 4% pa. Assume that investors are risk-neutral so their total required return on the shares is the same as the risk free Treasury bond yield which is 10% pa. Both are given as discrete effective annual rates.

Assuming that the equity index is fairly priced, an arbitrageur would recognise that the equity futures are:

(a) Under priced and should be bought.

(b) Under priced and should be sold.

(c) Over priced and should be bought.

(d) Over priced and should be sold.

(e) Fairly priced and an arbitrageur would be indifferent to buying or selling them.

Question 778  CML, systematic and idiosyncratic risk, portfolio risk, CAPM

The capital market line (CML) is shown in the graph below. The total standard deviation is denoted by σ and the expected return is μ. Assume that markets are efficient so all assets are fairly priced.

Which of the below statements is NOT correct?

(a) The risk free security has zero systematic variance and zero idiosyncratic variance.

(b) The market portfolio has zero idiosyncratic variance.

(c) Any portfolio comprised of the market portfolio and risk free security has zero idiosyncratic variance.

(d) Portfolios that plot on the CML must only be comprised of the risk free security and the market portfolio.

(e) Portfolios that plot on the CML have some idiosyncratic variance and some systematic variance.

Question 827  future, basis risk, no explanation

You intend to use futures on oil to hedge the risk of purchasing oil. There is no cross-hedging risk. Oil pays no dividends but it’s costly to store. Which of the following statements about basis risk in this scenario is NOT correct?

(a) Basis risk makes hedges more risky.

(b) Basis risk can only lead to worse than expected effective dollar prices.

(c) Basis risk only occurs when the future is closed out early, before it matures.

(d) ‘The basis’ is defined as the underlying spot price less the futures price quote ##(S_t - F_{t,T})##.

(e) The futures price of oil will tend to be higher than the spot price due to storage costs, so the basis will tend to be positive for hedgers who long futures contracts.