Fight Finance

Question 65  annuity with growth, needs refinement

Which of the below formulas gives the present value of an annuity with growth?

(a) ##\dfrac{C_1}{r-g}\left(1-\dfrac{1}{(1+r)^T}\right)##

(b) ##\dfrac{C_1(1+g)^T}{r-g}\left(1-\dfrac{1}{(1+r)^T}\right)##

(c) ##\dfrac{C_1}{r-g}\left(1-\dfrac{1+g}{(1+r)^T}\right)##

(d) ##\dfrac{C_1}{r-g}\left(1-\left(\dfrac{1+g}{1+r}\right)^T \right)##

(e) ##\dfrac{C_1(1+g)}{r-g}\left(1-\dfrac{1}{(1+r)^T}\right)##

Hint: The equation of a perpetuity without growth is: ###V_\text{0, perp without growth} = \frac{C_\text{1}}{r}###

The formula for the present value of an annuity without growth is derived from the formula for a perpetuity without growth.

The idea is than an annuity with T payments from t=1 to T inclusive is equivalent to a perpetuity starting at t=1 with fixed positive cash flows, plus a perpetuity starting T periods later (t=T+1) with fixed negative cash flows. The positive and negative cash flows after time period T cancel each other out, leaving the positive cash flows between t=1 to T, which is the annuity.

###\begin{aligned} V_\text{0, annuity} &= V_\text{0, perp without growth from t=1} - V_\text{0, perp without growth from t=T+1} \\ &= \dfrac{C_\text{1}}{r} - \dfrac{ \left( \dfrac{C_\text{T+1}}{r} \right) }{(1+r)^T} \\ &= \dfrac{C_\text{1}}{r} - \dfrac{ \left( \dfrac{C_\text{1}}{r} \right) }{(1+r)^T} \\ &= \dfrac{C_\text{1}}{r}\left(1 - \dfrac{1}{(1+r)^T}\right) \\ \end{aligned}###

The equation of a perpetuity with growth is:

###V_\text{0, perp with growth} = \dfrac{C_\text{1}}{r-g}###

Question 239  income and capital returns, inflation, real and nominal returns and cash flows, interest only loan

A bank grants a borrower an interest-only residential mortgage loan with a very large 50% deposit and a nominal interest rate of 6% that is not expected to change. Assume that inflation is expected to be a constant 2% pa over the life of the loan. Ignore credit risk.

From the bank's point of view, what is the long term expected nominal capital return of the loan asset?

(a) Approximately 6%.

(b) Approximately 4%.

(c) Approximately 2%.

(d) Approximately 0%.

(e) Approximately -2%.

Question 468  PE ratio

A firm has 1 million shares which trade at a price of $30 each. The firm is expected to announce earnings of $3 million at the end of the year and pay an annual dividend of $1.50 per share.

What is the firm's (forward looking) price/earnings (PE) ratio?

(a) 20

(b) 10

(c) 3

(d) 2

(e) 0.5

Question 538  bond pricing, income and capital returns, no explanation

Risk-free government bonds that have coupon rates greater than their yields:

(a) Are discount bonds.

(b) Have positive expected capital returns.

(c) Have higher expected income returns than total returns.

(d) Have prices less than their face values.

(e) Have significant credit risk.

Question 567  stock split, capital structure

A company conducts a 4 for 3 stock split. What is the percentage change in the stock price and the number of shares outstanding? The answers are given in the same order.

(a) -33.33%, 50%

(b) -25%, 33.33%

(c) -25%, 25%

(d) -20%, 25%

(e) 33.33%, -25%

Question 675  option, option profit, no explanation

Which of the below formulas gives the profit ##(\pi)## from being long a call option? Let the underlying asset price at maturity be ##S_T##, the exercise price be ##X_T## and the option price be ##f_{LC,0}##. Note that ##S_T##, ##X_T## and ##f_{LC,0}## are all positive numbers.

(a) ##\pi_{LC}=max⁡(S_T-X_T,0) + f_{LC,0}##

(b) ##\pi_{LC}=max⁡(X_T-S_T,0) + f_{LC,0}##

(c) ##\pi_{LC}=-max⁡(S_T-X_T,0) + f_{LC,0}##

(d) ##\pi_{LC}=max⁡(X_T-S_T,0) - f_{LC,0}##

(e) ##\pi_{LC}=max(S_T-X_T,0) - f_{LC,0}##

Question 715  return distribution

If a variable, say X, is normally distributed with mean ##\mu## and variance ##\sigma^2## then mathematicians write ##X \sim \mathcal{N}(\mu, \sigma^2)##.

If a variable, say Y, is log-normally distributed and the underlying normal distribution has mean ##\mu## and variance ##\sigma^2## then mathematicians write ## Y \sim \mathbf{ln} \mathcal{N}(\mu, \sigma^2)##.

The below three graphs show probability density functions (PDF) of three different random variables Red, Green and Blue.

Select the most correct statement:

(a)##Red \sim \mathcal{N}(\mu, \sigma^2)##,   ##Green \sim \mathcal{N}(\mu, \sigma^2)##   and   ##Blue \sim \mathcal{N}(\mu, \sigma^2)##

(b) ##Red \sim \mathcal{N}(\mu, \sigma^2)##,   ##Green \sim \mathcal{N}(\mu, \sigma^2)##   and   ##Blue \sim \mathbf{ln} \mathcal{N}(\mu, \sigma^2)##

(c) ##Red \sim \mathcal{N}(\mu, \sigma^2)##,   ##Green \sim \mathbf{ln} \mathcal{N}(\mu, \sigma^2)##   and   ##Blue \sim \mathbf{ln} \mathcal{N}(\mu, \sigma^2)##

(d) ##Red \sim \mathbf{ln} \mathcal{N}(\mu, \sigma^2)##,   ##Green \sim \mathcal{N}(\mu, \sigma^2)##   and   ##Blue \sim \mathbf{ln} \mathcal{N}(\mu, \sigma^2)##

(e) ##Red \sim \mathbf{ln} \mathcal{N}(\mu, \sigma^2)##,   ##Green \sim \mathbf{ln} \mathcal{N}(\mu, \sigma^2)##   and   ##Blue \sim \mathbf{ln} \mathcal{N}(\mu, \sigma^2)##

Question 801  negative gearing, leverage, capital structure, no explanation

The following steps set out the process of ‘negative gearing’ an investment property in Australia. Which of these steps or statements is NOT correct? To successfully achieve negative gearing on an investment property:

(a) Buy an investment property with low expected future capital gains and high rental income, funded using a low proportion of debt (mortgage loan);

(b) Rent the investment property to a tenant;

(c) Negative gearing is achieved when the property investment’s annual taxable profit is negative, due to the loan’s interest expense being greater than the net rent (rental revenue less the renting expenses such as maintenance);

(d) Deduct the property’s income loss from the investor’s separate personal wage from labour. This means that the investor will pay less personal income tax than if they didn’t make the levered property investment;

(e) The investment property will be a positive-NPV investment if the capital gains are greater than the income losses on an after-tax, risk-adjusted, present-value basis.

Question 871  duration, Macaulay duration, modified duration, portfolio duration

Which of the following statements about Macaulay duration is NOT correct? The Macaulay duration:

(a) Is the weighted average time that an asset’s cash flows are received, usually measured in years.

(b) Divided by (1+y) equals the modified duration, where y is the yield to maturity given as an effective annual rate and duration is measured in years.

(c) Of a zero-coupon bond is equal to the bond’s maturity.

(d) Of a fixed-coupon-paying bond will be less than the bond’s maturity.

(e) Of a portfolio is an arithmetic average of the Macaulay durations of the assets in the portfolio, weighted by their face values.

Question 938  CAPM, SML

The market's expected total return is 10% pa and the risk free rate is 5% pa, both given as effective annual rates.

A stock has a beta of 0.7.

In the last 5 minutes, bad economic news was released showing a higher chance of recession. Over this time the share market fell by 2%. The risk free rate was unchanged. What do you think was the stock's historical return over the last 5 minutes, given as an effective 5 minute rate?

(a) -8.5%

(b) -2.7%

(c) -2%

(d) -1.4%

(e) 0.1%