The equations for Net Income (NI, also known as Earnings or Net Profit After Tax) and Cash Flow From Assets (CFFA, also known as Free Cash Flow to the Firm) per year are:
###NI=(Rev-COGS-FC-Depr-IntExp).(1-t_c)###
###CFFA=NI+Depr-CapEx - \varDelta NWC+IntExp###
For a firm with debt, what is the amount of the interest tax shield per year?
A company has:
- 10 million common shares outstanding, each trading at a price of $90.
- 1 million preferred shares which have a face (or par) value of $100 and pay a constant dividend of 9% of par. They currently trade at a price of $120 each.
- Debentures that have a total face value of $60,000,000 and a yield to maturity of 6% per annum. They are publicly traded and their market price is equal to 90% of their face value.
- The risk-free rate is 5% and the market return is 10%.
- Market analysts estimate that the company's common stock has a beta of 1.2. The corporate tax rate is 30%.
What is the company's after-tax Weighted Average Cost of Capital (WACC)? Assume a classical tax system.
Which one of the following bonds is trading at a discount?
Harvey Norman the large retailer often runs sales advertising 2 years interest free when you purchase its products. This offer can be seen as a free personal loan from Harvey Norman to its customers.
Assume that banks charge an interest rate on personal loans of 12% pa given as an APR compounding per month. This is the interest rate that Harvey Norman deserves on the 2 year loan it extends to its customers. Therefore Harvey Norman must implicitly include the cost of this loan in the advertised sale price of its goods.
If you were a customer buying from Harvey Norman, and you were paying immediately, not in 2 years, what is the minimum percentage discount to the advertised sale price that you would insist on? (Hint: if it makes it easier, assume that you’re buying a product with an advertised price of $100).
Which one of the following bonds is trading at par?
A new company's Firm Free Cash Flow (FFCF, same as CFFA) is forecast in the graph below.
To value the firm's assets, the terminal value needs to be calculated using the perpetuity with growth formula:
###V_{\text{terminal, }t-1} = \dfrac{FFCF_{\text{terminal, }t}}{r-g}###
Which point corresponds to the best time to calculate the terminal value?
The first payment of a constant perpetual annual cash flow is received at time 5. Let this cash flow be ##C_5## and the required return be ##r##.
So there will be equal annual cash flows at time 5, 6, 7 and so on forever, and all of the cash flows will be equal so ##C_5 = C_6 = C_7 = ...##
When the perpetuity formula is used to value this stream of cash flows, it will give a value (V) at time:
Below is a graph of the USD against the JPY and EUR from 1980 to 2015, compiled by the RBA. Select the correct statement about what occurred between 1980 and 2015. Note that in 1980 the euro was around 1.3 USD per EUR and the Yen was around 250 JPY per USD.
