Fight Finance

(a) The debt-to-assets (D/V) ratio will increase.

(b) The debt-to-equity ratio (D/E) will increase.

(c) Firm value is likely to have increased due to the higher amount of interest tax shields, assuming that there will not be any costs of financial distress.

(d) The company's after-tax WACC is likely to have decreased.

(e) The company's before-tax WACC is likely to have decreased.

(a) CapEx is added in the Net Income (NI) equation so it needs subtracting in the CFFA equation.

(b) CapEx is a financing cash flow that needs to be ignored. Therefore it should be subtracted.

(c) CapEx is not a cash flow, it's a non-cash expense made up by accountants that needs to be subtracted.

(d) CapEx is subtracted to account for the net cash spent on capital assets.

(e) CapEx is subtracted because it's too hard to predict, therefore we exclude it.

(a) Competition.

(b) Opportunity costs.

(c) Separation of the investment and financing decisions.

(d) Diversification.

(e) The stand-alone principle, incremental cash flows and sunk costs.

(a) ##f_{LP,T}=max⁡(S_T-X_T,0)##

(b) ##f_{LP,T}=max⁡(X_T-S_T,0)##

(c) ##f_{LP,T}=-max⁡(S_T-X_T,0)##

(d) ##f_{LP,T}=-max⁡(X_T-S_T,0)##

(e) ##f_{LP,T}=min⁡(X_T-S_T,0)##

(a)##-1 < \text{Red} < \infty## if Red is log-normally distributed.

(b) ##-2 < \text{Green} < 2## if Green is normally distributed.

(c) ##0 < \text{Blue} < \infty## if Blue is log-normally distributed.

(d) If the Green distribution is normal, then the mode = median = mean.

(e) If the Red and Blue distributions are log-normal, then the mode < median < mean.

(a) Firm A is less risky than Firm B. Firm A would have a higher credit rating.

(b) Firm A has the absolute advantage issuing bonds in both the fixed and floating coupon bond markets.

(c) Firm A has a comparative advantage issuing bonds in the floating coupon bond market.

(d) The net benefit from the swap available to Firm A is 0.25%.

(e) The swap rate between Firm B and the Bank would be 2.5% pa.

(a) Buy an investment property with low expected future capital gains and high rental income, funded using a low proportion of debt (mortgage loan);

(b) Rent the investment property to a tenant;

(c) Negative gearing is achieved when the property investment’s annual taxable profit is negative, due to the loan’s interest expense being greater than the net rent (rental revenue less the renting expenses such as maintenance);

(d) Deduct the property’s income loss from the investor’s separate personal wage from labour. This means that the investor will pay less personal income tax than if they didn’t make the levered property investment;

(e) The investment property will be a positive-NPV investment if the capital gains are greater than the income losses on an after-tax, risk-adjusted, present-value basis.

(a) The Macaulay duration of the bond is 22 years.

(b) If yields-to-maturity suddenly fell by 1 percentage point then bond prices would suddenly rise by 20% or more.

(c) If yields-to-maturity suddenly rose by 2 percentage points then bond prices would suddenly fall by 40% or less.

(d) If the bond is a zero-coupon bond then its maturity is 20 years.

(e) The modified-duration-price-change formula assumes parallel shifts in the yield curve.

(a) Lev’s annual interest expense would have been $40,000.

(b) Lev’s annual loss before tax on the investment property was $10,000

(c) Lev’s annual loss after tax on the investment property was $5,500

(d) Lev’s personal tax saving due to the investment property was $5,500.

(e) Nolev’s personal tax payable due to the investment property was $13,500.

(a) The equation of Arthur’s production possibilities line is coconuts = -1/4*dates + 1.

(b) The equation of Bindi’s production possibilities line is coconuts = -2*dates + 2

(c) Arthur could pick 0.5 dates and 1 coconut in one hour.

(d) Bindi could pick 0.5 dates and 1 coconut in one hour.