A company has:
- 140 million shares outstanding.
- The market price of one share is currently $2.
- The company's debentures are publicly traded and their market price is equal to 93% of the face value.
- The debentures have a total face value of $50,000,000 and the current yield to maturity of corporate debentures is 12% per annum.
- The risk-free rate is 8.50% and the market return is 13.7%.
- Market analysts estimated that the company's stock has a beta of 0.90.
- The corporate tax rate is 30%.
What is the company's after-tax weighted average cost of capital (WACC) in a classical tax system?
A stock is expected to pay the following dividends:
| Cash Flows of a Stock | ||||||
| Time (yrs) | 0 | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 | ... |
| Dividend ($) | 0 | 6 | 12 | 18 | 20 | ... |
After year 4, the dividend will grow in perpetuity at 5% pa. The required return of the stock is 10% pa. Both the growth rate and required return are given as effective annual rates.
What is the current price of the stock?
A 2 year corporate bond yields 3% pa with a coupon rate of 5% pa, paid semi-annually.
Find the effective monthly rate, effective six month rate, and effective annual rate.
##r_\text{eff monthly}##, ##r_\text{eff 6 month}##, ##r_\text{eff annual}##.
In the 1997 Asian financial crisis many countries' exchange rates depreciated rapidly against the US dollar (USD). The Thai, Indonesian, Malaysian, Korean and Filipino currencies were severely affected. The below graph shows these Asian countries' currencies in USD per one unit of their currency, indexed to 100 in June 1997.
Of the statements below, which is NOT correct? The Asian countries':
Question 786 fixed for floating interest rate swap, intermediated swap
The below table summarises the borrowing costs confronting two companies A and B.
| Bond Market Yields | ||||
| Fixed Yield to Maturity (%pa) | Floating Yield (%pa) | |||
| Firm A | 3 | L - 0.4 | ||
| Firm B | 5 | L + 1 | ||
Firm A wishes to borrow at a floating rate and Firm B wishes to borrow at a fixed rate. Design an intermediated swap (which means there will actually be two swaps) that nets a bank 0.1% and shares the remaining swap benefits between Firms A and B equally. Which of the following statements about the swap is NOT correct?
Question 793 option, hedging, delta hedging, gamma hedging, gamma, Black-Scholes-Merton option pricing
A bank buys 1000 European put options on a $10 non-dividend paying stock at a strike of $12. The bank wishes to hedge this exposure. The bank can trade the underlying stocks and European call options with a strike price of 7 on the same stock with the same maturity. Details of the call and put options are given in the table below. Each call and put option is on a single stock.
| European Options on a Non-dividend Paying Stock | |||
| Description | Symbol | Put Values | Call Values |
| Spot price ($) | ##S_0## | 10 | 10 |
| Strike price ($) | ##K_T## | 12 | 7 |
| Risk free cont. comp. rate (pa) | ##r## | 0.05 | 0.05 |
| Standard deviation of the stock's cont. comp. returns (pa) | ##\sigma## | 0.4 | 0.4 |
| Option maturity (years) | ##T## | 1 | 1 |
| Option price ($) | ##p_0## or ##c_0## | 2.495350486 | 3.601466138 |
| ##N[d_1]## | ##\partial c/\partial S## | 0.888138405 | |
| ##N[d_2]## | ##N[d_2]## | 0.792946442 | |
| ##-N[-d_1]## | ##\partial p/\partial S## | -0.552034778 | |
| ##N[-d_2]## | ##N[-d_2]## | 0.207053558 | |
| Gamma | ##\Gamma = \partial^2 c/\partial S^2## or ##\partial^2 p/\partial S^2## | 0.098885989 | 0.047577422 |
| Theta | ##\Theta = \partial c/\partial T## or ##\partial p/\partial T## | 0.348152078 | 0.672379961 |
Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
A 12 month European-style call option with a strike price of $11 is written on a dividend paying stock currently trading at $10. The dividend is paid annually and the next dividend is expected to be $0.40, paid in 9 months. The risk-free interest rate is 5% pa continuously compounded and the standard deviation of the stock’s continuously compounded returns is 30 percentage points pa. The stock's continuously compounded returns are normally distributed. Using the Black-Scholes-Merton option valuation model, determine which of the following statements is NOT correct.
Question 860 idiom, hedging, speculation, arbitrage, market making, insider trading, no explanation
Which class of derivatives market trader is NOT principally focused on ‘buying low and selling high’?
A non-dividend paying stock has a current price of $20.
The risk free rate is 5% pa given as a continuously compounded rate.
A 2 year futures contract on the stock has a futures price of $24.
You suspect that the futures contract is mis-priced and would like to conduct a risk-free arbitrage that requires zero capital. Which of the following steps about arbitraging the situation is NOT correct?
RBA analyst Adam Hamilton wrote in the December 2018 Bulletin article ‘Understanding Exchange Rates and Why They Are Important’ the following passage about bilateral exchange rates:
A bilateral exchange rate refers to the value of one currency relative to another. It is the most commonly referenced type of exchange rate. Most bilateral exchange rates are quoted against the US dollar (USD), as it is the most traded currency globally. Looking at the Australian dollar (AUD), the AUD/USD exchange rate gives you the amount of US dollars that you will receive for each Australian dollar that you convert (or sell). For example, an AUD/USD exchange rate of 0.75 means that you will get US75 cents for every 1 AUD.
An appreciation of the Australian dollar is an increase in its value compared with a foreign currency. This means that each Australian dollar buys you more foreign currency than before. Equivalently, if you are buying an item that is priced in foreign currency it will now cost you less in Australian dollars than before. If there is a depreciation of the Australian dollar, the opposite is true.
Based on this information, which of the following statements is NOT correct?