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Question 85  WACC, CAPM

A company has:

  • 140 million shares outstanding.
  • The market price of one share is currently $2.
  • The company's debentures are publicly traded and their market price is equal to 93% of the face value.
  • The debentures have a total face value of $50,000,000 and the current yield to maturity of corporate debentures is 12% per annum.
  • The risk-free rate is 8.50% and the market return is 13.7%.
  • Market analysts estimated that the company's stock has a beta of 0.90.
  • The corporate tax rate is 30%.

What is the company's after-tax weighted average cost of capital (WACC) in a classical tax system?



Question 240  negative gearing, interest tax shield

Unrestricted negative gearing is allowed in Australia, New Zealand and Japan. Negative gearing laws allow income losses on investment properties to be deducted from a tax-payer's pre-tax personal income. Negatively geared investors benefit from this tax advantage. They also hope to benefit from capital gains which exceed the income losses.

For example, a property investor buys an apartment funded by an interest only mortgage loan. Interest expense is $2,000 per month. The rental payments received from the tenant living on the property are $1,500 per month. The investor can deduct this income loss of $500 per month from his pre-tax personal income. If his personal marginal tax rate is 46.5%, this saves $232.5 per month in personal income tax.

The advantage of negative gearing is an example of the benefits of:



Question 277  derivative terminology, future

The 'initial margin', also known as the performance bond in a futures contract, is paid at the start when the futures contract is agreed to. or ?


Question 304  option

Which one of the following is NOT usually considered an 'investable' asset for long-term wealth creation?



Question 386  Merton model of corporate debt, real option, option

A risky firm will last for one period only (t=0 to 1), then it will be liquidated. So it's assets will be sold and the debt holders and equity holders will be paid out in that order. The firm has the following quantities:

##V## = Market value of assets.

##E## = Market value of (levered) equity.

##D## = Market value of zero coupon bonds.

##F_1## = Total face value of zero coupon bonds which is promised to be paid in one year.

Image of risky debt

The risky corporate debt graph above contains bold labels a to e. Which of the following statements about those labels is NOT correct?



Question 444  investment decision, corporate financial decision theory

The investment decision primarily affects which part of a business?



Question 494  franking credit, personal tax on dividends, imputation tax system

A firm pays a fully franked cash dividend of $100 to one of its Australian shareholders who has a personal marginal tax rate of 15%. The corporate tax rate is 30%.

What will be the shareholder's personal tax payable due to the dividend payment?



Question 576  inflation, real and nominal returns and cash flows

What is the present value of a nominal payment of $1,000 in 4 years? The nominal discount rate is 8% pa and the inflation rate is 2% pa.



Question 620  bond pricing, income and capital returns

Let the 'income return' of a bond be the coupon at the end of the period divided by the market price now at the start of the period ##(C_1/P_0)##. The expected income return of a premium fixed coupon bond is:



Question 903  option, Black-Scholes-Merton option pricing, option on stock index

A six month European-style call option on the S&P500 stock index has a strike price of 2800 points.

The underlying S&P500 stock index currently trades at 2700 points, has a continuously compounded dividend yield of 2% pa and a standard deviation of continuously compounded returns of 25% pa.

The risk-free interest rate is 5% pa continuously compounded.

Use the Black-Scholes-Merton formula to calculate the option price. The call option price now is: