Fight Finance

Question 91  WACC, capital structure

A firm has a debt-to-assets ratio of 50%. The firm then issues a large amount of equity to raise money for new projects of similar systematic risk to the company's existing projects. Assume a classical tax system. Which statement is correct?

(a) The debt-to-assets (D/V) ratio will increase.

(b) The debt-to-equity ratio (D/E) will increase.

(c) Firm value is likely to have increased due to the higher amount of interest tax shields, assuming that there will not be any costs of financial distress.

(d) The company's after-tax WACC is likely to stay the same.

(e) The company's before-tax WACC is likely to stay the same.

Question 114  WACC, capital structure, risk

A firm's WACC before tax would decrease due to:

(a) the firm's industry becoming more systematically risky, for example if it was a mining company and commodities prices varied more strongly and were more positively correlated with the market portfolio.

(b) the firm's industry becoming less systematically risky, for example if it was a child care centre and the government announced permanently higher subsidies for parents' child care expenses.

(c) the firm issuing more debt and using the proceeds to repurchase stock.

(d) the firm issuing more equity and using the proceeds to pay off debt holders.

(e) none of the above.

Question 367  CFFA, interest tax shield

There are many ways to calculate a firm's free cash flow (FFCF), also called cash flow from assets (CFFA). Some include the annual interest tax shield in the cash flow and some do not.

Which of the below FFCF formulas include the interest tax shield in the cash flow?

###(1) \quad FFCF=NI + Depr - CapEx -ΔNWC + IntExp### ###(2) \quad FFCF=NI + Depr - CapEx -ΔNWC + IntExp.(1-t_c)### ###(3) \quad FFCF=EBIT.(1-t_c )+ Depr- CapEx -ΔNWC+IntExp.t_c### ###(4) \quad FFCF=EBIT.(1-t_c) + Depr- CapEx -ΔNWC### ###(5) \quad FFCF=EBITDA.(1-t_c )+Depr.t_c- CapEx -ΔNWC+IntExp.t_c### ###(6) \quad FFCF=EBITDA.(1-t_c )+Depr.t_c- CapEx -ΔNWC### ###(7) \quad FFCF=EBIT-Tax + Depr - CapEx -ΔNWC### ###(8) \quad FFCF=EBIT-Tax + Depr - CapEx -ΔNWC-IntExp.t_c### ###(9) \quad FFCF=EBITDA-Tax - CapEx -ΔNWC### ###(10) \quad FFCF=EBITDA-Tax - CapEx -ΔNWC-IntExp.t_c###

The formulas for net income (NI also called earnings), EBIT and EBITDA are given below. Assume that depreciation and amortisation are both represented by 'Depr' and that 'FC' represents fixed costs such as rent.

###NI=(Rev - COGS - Depr - FC - IntExp).(1-t_c )### ###EBIT=Rev - COGS - FC-Depr### ###EBITDA=Rev - COGS - FC### ###Tax =(Rev - COGS - Depr - FC - IntExp).t_c= \dfrac{NI.t_c}{1-t_c}###

(a) 1, 3, 5, 7, 9.

(b) 2, 4, 6, 8, 10.

(c) 1, 4, 6, 8, 10.

(d) 2, 3, 5, 7, 9.

(e) 1, 3, 5, 8, 10.

Question 396  real option, option

Your firm's research scientists can begin an exciting new project at a cost of $10m now, after which there’s a:

• 70% chance that cash flows will be $1m per year forever, starting in 5 years (t=5). This is the A state of the world.
• 20% chance that cash flows will be $3m per year forever, starting in 5 years (t=5). This is the B state of the world.
• 10% chance of a major break through in which case the cash flows will be $20m per year forever starting in 5 years (t=5), or instead, the project can be expanded by investing another $10m (at t=5) which is expected to give cash flows of $60m per year forever, starting at year 9 (t=9). Note that the perpetual cash flows are either the $20m from year 4 onwards, or the $60m from year 9 onwards after the additional $10m year 5 investment, but not both. This is the C state of the world.

The firm's cost of capital is 10% pa.

What's the present value (at t=0) of the option to expand in year 5?

(a) $12.54m

(b) $13.71m

(c) $20.98m

(d) $26.25m

(e) $27.37m

Question 417  NPV, market efficiency, DDM

A managed fund charges fees based on the amount of money that you keep with them. The fee is 2% of the end-of-year amount, paid at the end of every year.

This fee is charged regardless of whether the fund makes gains or losses on your money.

The fund offers to invest your money in shares which have an expected return of 10% pa before fees.

You are thinking of investing $100,000 in the fund and keeping it there for 40 years when you plan to retire.

How much money do you expect to have in the fund in 40 years? Also, what is the future value of the fees that the fund expects to earn from you? Give both amounts as future values in 40 years. Assume that:

• The fund has no private information.
• Markets are weak and semi-strong form efficient.
• The fund's transaction costs are negligible.
• The cost and trouble of investing your money in shares by yourself, without the managed fund, is negligible.
• The fund invests its fees in the same companies as it invests your funds in, but with no fees.

The below answer choices list your expected wealth in 40 years and then the fund's expected wealth in 40 years.

(a) $4,462,125.27, $63,800.29

(b) $3,407,788.62, $1,118,136.94

(c) $3,316,736.53, $1,209,189.03

(d) $2,172,452.15, $2,353,473.41

(e) $2,017,206.85, $2,508,718.71

Question 608  debt terminology

You deposit cash into your bank account. Have you or debt?

Question 618  capital structure, no explanation

Who owns a company's shares? The:

(a) Company.

(b) Debt holders.

(c) Equity holders.

(d) Chief Executive Officer (CEO).

(e) Board of directors.

Question 629  yield curve, forward interest rate

Which of the following statements about yield curves is NOT correct?

(a) A yield curve graph shows bonds' spot yields at different maturities. The y-axis shows spot yields and the x-axis shows the bonds' times to maturity.

(b) A yield curve is a graph of forward rates.

(c) Normal yield curves slope upwards, they have a positive gradient.

(d) A yield curve is 'as at' a certain date, it's a snapshot in time.

(e) Every point on the yield curve corresponds to a different bond with a different maturity.

Question 733  DDM, income and capital returns

A share’s current price is $60. It’s expected to pay a dividend of $1.50 in one year. The growth rate of the dividend is 0.5% pa and the stock’s required total return is 3% pa. The stock’s price can be modeled using the dividend discount model (DDM):

##P_0=\dfrac{C_1}{r-g}##

Which of the following methods is NOT equal to the stock’s expected price in one year and six months (t=1.5 years)? Note that the symbolic formulas shown in each line below do equal the formulas with numbers. The formula is just repeated with symbols and then numbers in case it helps you to identify the incorrect statement more quickly.

(a) ##P_{1.5}=P_0 (1+g)^1 (1+r)^{0.5}=60(1+0.005)^1 (1+0.03)^{0.5}##

(b) ##P_{1.5}=(P_0 (1+r)^1-C_1 ) (1+r)^{0.5}=(60(1+0.03)^1-1.5) (1+0.03)^{0.5}##

(c) ##P_{1.5}=\dfrac{C_1}{r-g} (1+r)^1 (1+g)^{0.5}=\dfrac{1.5}{0.03-0.005} (1+0.03)^1 (1+0.005)^{0.5}##

(d) ##P_{1.5}=\dfrac{C_1 (1+g)^1}{r-g} (1+r)^{0.5}=\dfrac{1.5(1+0.005)^1}{0.03-0.005} (1+0.03)^{0.5}##

(e) ##P_{1.5}=\dfrac{C_1 (1+g)^2}{r-g}/(1+r)^{0.5} +C_1 (1+g)^1/(1+r)^{0.5} =\dfrac{1.5(1+0.005)^2}{0.03-0.005}/(1+0.03)^{0.5} +1.5(1+0.005)^1/(1+0.03)^{0.5} ##

Question 808  Markowitz portfolio theory, portfolio return

A graph of assets’ expected returns ##(\mu)## versus standard deviations ##(\sigma)## is given in the below diagram.

Each letter corresponds to a separate coloured area. The portfolios at the boundary of the areas, on the black lines, are excluded from each area. Assume that all assets represented in this graph are fairly priced, and that all risky assets can be short-sold.

Which of the following statements about this graph and Markowitz portfolio theory is NOT correct?

(a) Area A contains ideal portfolios but unfortunately these portfolios are unattainable.

(b) Area B portfolios are only attainable if investors can borrow at the risk free rate, meaning that they can risklessly short sell government bonds and only pay the risk free rate to do so.

(c) Area C contains all individual risky assets and portfolios of those risky assets.

(d) Area D portfolios are only attainable if investors can borrow at the risk free rate, meaning that they can risklessly short sell government bonds and only pay the risk free rate to do so, similarly to Area B.

(e) Area E contains unattainable portfolios.