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Question 99 capital structure, interest tax shield, Miller and Modigliani, trade off theory of capital structure

A firm changes its capital structure by issuing a large amount of debt and using the funds to repurchase shares. Its assets are unchanged.

Assume that:

The firm and individual investors can borrow at the same rate and have the same tax rates.
The firm's debt and shares are fairly priced and the shares are repurchased at the market price, not at a premium.
There are no market frictions relating to debt such as asymmetric information or transaction costs.
Shareholders wealth is measured in terms of utiliity. Shareholders are wealth-maximising and risk-averse. They have a preferred level of overall leverage. Before the firm's capital restructure all shareholders were optimally levered.

According to Miller and Modigliani's theory, which statement is correct?

(a) The firm's share price and shareholder wealth will both decrease. This is because the firm will have more debt and therefore more risk so the discount rate applied to its cash flows will be higher, decreasing the value of the firm and therefore the value of the firm's equity and share price.

(b) The firm's share price and shareholder wealth will both increase. This is because the firm will have more debt which will amplify the returns of equity investors. This will mean that returns on equity can be much higher and investors will pay a premium for this, leading to an increase in the stock price.

(c) The firm's share price and shareholder wealth will both increase since it has more debt and therefore more tax shields.

(d) The firm's share price will increase due to the higher value of tax shields. But shareholder wealth will remain unchanged because capital structure is irrelevant when investors can use home-made leverage to create tax-shields themselves.

(e) The firm's share price and shareholder wealth will both increase. This is because the cost of debt is cheaper than equity, leading to a lower (before and after tax) WACC. This lower WACC will lead to a higher value of the firm and a higher share price.

Question 369 interest tax shield, CFFA

One formula for calculating a levered firm's free cash flow (FFCF, or CFFA) is to use earnings before interest and tax (EBIT).

###\begin{aligned} FFCF &= (EBIT)(1-t_c) + Depr - CapEx -\Delta NWC + IntExp.t_c \\ &= (Rev - COGS - Depr - FC)(1-t_c) + Depr - CapEx -\Delta NWC + IntExp.t_c \\ \end{aligned} \\###

Question 405 DDM, income and capital returns, no explanation

The perpetuity with growth formula is:

###P_0= \dfrac{C_1}{r-g}###

Which of the following is NOT equal to the total required return (r)?

Question 567 stock split, capital structure

A company conducts a 4 for 3 stock split. What is the percentage change in the stock price and the number of shares outstanding? The answers are given in the same order.

Question 696 utility, risk aversion, utility function

Mr Blue, Miss Red and Mrs Green are people with different utility functions. Which of the statements about the 3 utility functions is NOT correct?

Question 711 continuously compounding rate, continuously compounding rate conversion

A continuously compounded semi-annual return of 5% ##(r_\text{cc 6mth})## is equivalent to a continuously compounded annual return ##(r_\text{cc annual})## of:

Question 810 CAPM, systematic and idiosyncratic risk, market efficiency

Examine the graphs below. Assume that asset A is a single stock. Which of the following statements is NOT correct? Asset A:

Question 819 option, derivative terminology, no explanation

Which of the following terms about options are NOT synonyms?

Question 987 interest tax shield, capital structure, debt terminology

What creates interest tax shields for a company?

Question 989 PE ratio, Multiples valuation, leverage, accounting ratio

A firm has 20 million stocks, earnings (or net income) of $100 million per annum and a 60% debt-to-equity ratio where both the debt and asset values are market values rather than book values. Similar firms have a PE ratio of 12.

Which of the below statements is NOT correct based on a PE multiples valuation?