# Fight Finance

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Which of the below statements about effective rates and annualised percentage rates (APR's) is NOT correct?

In the dividend discount model:

$$P_0= \frac{d_1}{r-g}$$

The pronumeral $g$ is supposed to be the:

Acquirer firm plans to launch a takeover of Target firm. The deal is expected to create a present value of synergies totaling $0.5 million, but investment bank fees and integration costs with a present value of$1.5 million is expected. A 10% cash and 90% scrip offer will be made that pays the fair price for the target's shares only. Assume that the Target and Acquirer agree to the deal. The cash will be paid out of the firms' cash holdings, no new debt or equity will be raised.

 Firms Involved in the Takeover Acquirer Target Assets ($m) 60 10 Debt ($m) 20 2 Share price ($) 10 8 Number of shares (m) 4 1 Assume that the firms' debt and equity are fairly priced, and that each firms' debts' risk, yield and values remain constant. The acquisition is planned to occur immediately, so ignore the time value of money. Calculate the merged firm's share price and total number of shares after the takeover has been completed. Business people make lots of important decisions. Which of the following is the most important long term decision? The covariance and correlation of two stocks X and Y's annual returns are calculated over a number of years. The units of the returns are in percent per annum $(\% pa)$. What are the units of the covariance $(\sigma_{X,Y})$ and correlation $(\rho_{X,Y})$ of returns respectively? Hint: Visit Wikipedia to understand the difference between percentage points $(\text{pp})$ and percent $(\%)$. Which of the following statements about yield curves is NOT correct? A graph of assets’ expected returns $(\mu)$ versus standard deviations $(\sigma)$ is given in the graph below. The CML is the capital market line. Which of the following statements about this graph, Markowitz portfolio theory and the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) theory is NOT correct? A one year European-style put option has a strike price of$4.

The option's underlying stock currently trades at \$5, pays no dividends and its standard deviation of continuously compounded returns is 47% pa.

The risk-free interest rate is 10% pa continuously compounded.

Use the Black-Scholes-Merton formula to calculate the option price. The put option price now is:

Suppose the yield curve in the USA and Germany is flat and the:

• USD federal funds rate at the Federal Reserve is 1% pa;
• EUR deposit facility at the European Central Bank is -0.4% pa (note the negative sign);
• Spot EUR exchange rate is 1 USD per EUR;
• One year forward EUR exchange rate is 1.011 USD per EUR.

You suspect that there’s an arbitrage opportunity. Which one of the following statements about the potential arbitrage opportunity is NOT correct?

A 3-for-2 stock split is equivalent to a 1-for-2 bonus issue or a 200% stock dividend. or ?