A two year Government bond has a face value of $100, a yield of 0.5% and a fixed coupon rate of 0.5%, paid semi-annually. What is its price?
Question 100 market efficiency, technical analysis, joint hypothesis problem
A company selling charting and technical analysis software claims that independent academic studies have shown that its software makes significantly positive abnormal returns. Assuming the claim is true, which statement(s) are correct?
(I) Weak form market efficiency is broken.
(II) Semi-strong form market efficiency is broken.
(III) Strong form market efficiency is broken.
(IV) The asset pricing model used to measure the abnormal returns (such as the CAPM) had mis-specification error so the returns may not be abnormal but rather fair for the level of risk.
Select the most correct response:
You have $100,000 in the bank. The bank pays interest at 10% pa, given as an effective annual rate.
You wish to consume twice as much now (t=0) as in one year (t=1) and have nothing left in the bank at the end.
How much can you consume at time zero and one? The answer choices are given in the same order.
Question 542 price gains and returns over time, IRR, NPV, income and capital returns, effective return
For an asset price to double every 10 years, what must be the expected future capital return, given as an effective annual rate?
Question 772 interest tax shield, capital structure, leverage
A firm issues debt and uses the funds to buy back equity. Assume that there are no costs of financial distress or transactions costs. Which of the following statements about interest tax shields is NOT correct?
Below is a table of the 'Risk-weights for residential mortgages' as shown in APRA Basel 3 Prudential Standard APS 112 Capital Adequacy: Standardised Approach to Credit Risk January 2013.
| LVR (%) |
Standard eligible mortgages |
Non-standard eligible mortgages |
||
|
|
Risk-weight (no mortgage insurance) % |
Risk-weight (with at least 40% of the mortgage insured by an acceptable LMI) % |
Risk-weight (no mortgage insurance) % |
Risk-weight (with at least 40% of the mortgage insured by an acceptable LMI) % |
| 0 – 60 |
35 |
35 |
50 |
35 |
| 60.01 – 80 |
35 |
35 |
75 |
50 |
| 80.01 – 90 |
50 |
35 |
100 |
75 |
| 90.01 – 100 |
75 |
50 |
100 |
75 |
| > 100.01 |
100 |
75 |
100 |
100 |
A bank is considering granting a home loan to a man to buy a house worth $1.25 million using his own funds and the loan. The loan would be standard with no lenders mortgage insurance (LMI) and an LVR of 80%.
What is the minimum regulatory capital that the bank requires to grant the home loan under the Basel 3 Accord? Ignore the capital conservation buffer.
Question 923 omitted variable bias, CAPM, single factor model, single index model, no explanation
Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) and the Single Index Model (SIM) are single factor models whose only risk factor is the market portfolio’s return. Say a Taxi company and an Umbrella company are influenced by two factors, the market portfolio return and rainfall. When it rains, both the Taxi and Umbrella companies’ stock prices do well. When there’s no rain, both do poorly. Assume that rainfall risk is a systematic risk that cannot be diversified and that rainfall has zero correlation with the market portfolio’s returns.
Which of the following statements about these two stocks is NOT correct?
The CAPM and SIM: