Fight Finance

Question 1  NPV

Jan asks you for a loan. He wants $100 now and offers to pay you back $120 in 1 year. You can borrow and lend from the bank at an interest rate of 10% pa, given as an effective annual rate.

Ignore credit risk. Remember:

### V_0 = \frac{V_t}{(1+r_\text{eff})^t} ###

Will you or Jan's deal?

Question 28  DDM, income and capital returns

The following equation is the Dividend Discount Model, also known as the 'Gordon Growth Model' or the 'Perpetuity with growth' equation.

### P_{0} = \frac{C_1}{r_{\text{eff}} - g_{\text{eff}}} ###

What would you call the expression ## C_1/P_0 ##?

(a) The expected total return of the stock.

(b) The expected income return of the stock.

(c) The expected capital return of the stock.

(d) The expected growth rate of the dividend.

(e) The expected growth rate of the stock price.

Question 65  annuity with growth, needs refinement

Which of the below formulas gives the present value of an annuity with growth?

(a) ##\dfrac{C_1}{r-g}\left(1-\dfrac{1}{(1+r)^T}\right)##

(b) ##\dfrac{C_1(1+g)^T}{r-g}\left(1-\dfrac{1}{(1+r)^T}\right)##

(c) ##\dfrac{C_1}{r-g}\left(1-\dfrac{1+g}{(1+r)^T}\right)##

(d) ##\dfrac{C_1}{r-g}\left(1-\left(\dfrac{1+g}{1+r}\right)^T \right)##

(e) ##\dfrac{C_1(1+g)}{r-g}\left(1-\dfrac{1}{(1+r)^T}\right)##

Hint: The equation of a perpetuity without growth is: ###V_\text{0, perp without growth} = \frac{C_\text{1}}{r}###

The formula for the present value of an annuity without growth is derived from the formula for a perpetuity without growth.

The idea is than an annuity with T payments from t=1 to T inclusive is equivalent to a perpetuity starting at t=1 with fixed positive cash flows, plus a perpetuity starting T periods later (t=T+1) with fixed negative cash flows. The positive and negative cash flows after time period T cancel each other out, leaving the positive cash flows between t=1 to T, which is the annuity.

###\begin{aligned} V_\text{0, annuity} &= V_\text{0, perp without growth from t=1} - V_\text{0, perp without growth from t=T+1} \\ &= \dfrac{C_\text{1}}{r} - \dfrac{ \left( \dfrac{C_\text{T+1}}{r} \right) }{(1+r)^T} \\ &= \dfrac{C_\text{1}}{r} - \dfrac{ \left( \dfrac{C_\text{1}}{r} \right) }{(1+r)^T} \\ &= \dfrac{C_\text{1}}{r}\left(1 - \dfrac{1}{(1+r)^T}\right) \\ \end{aligned}###

The equation of a perpetuity with growth is:

###V_\text{0, perp with growth} = \dfrac{C_\text{1}}{r-g}###

Question 184  NPV, DDM

A stock is expected to pay the following dividends:

Cash Flows of a Stock
Time (yrs)	0	1	2	3	4	...
Dividend ($)	2	2	2	10	3	...

After year 4, the dividend will grow in perpetuity at 4% pa. The required return on the stock is 10% pa. Both the growth rate and required return are given as effective annual rates.

What is the current price of the stock?

(a) 62.9842

(b) 52.0526

(c) 50.5500

(d) 48.5009

(e) 47.1349

Question 448  franking credit, personal tax on dividends, imputation tax system

A small private company has a single shareholder. This year the firm earned a $100 profit before tax. All of the firm's after tax profits will be paid out as dividends to the owner.

The corporate tax rate is 30% and the sole shareholder's personal marginal tax rate is 45%.

The Australian imputation tax system applies because the company generates all of its income in Australia and pays corporate tax to the Australian Tax Office. Therefore all of the company's dividends are fully franked. The sole shareholder is an Australian for tax purposes and can therefore use the franking credits to offset his personal income tax liability.

What will be the personal tax payable by the shareholder and the corporate tax payable by the company?

(a) Personal tax of $6.43 and corporate tax of $45.

(b) Personal tax of $15 and corporate tax of $30.

(c) Personal tax of $16.5 and corporate tax of $45.

(d) Personal tax of $31.5 and corporate tax of $30.

(e) Personal tax of $45 and corporate tax of $0.

Question 460  bond pricing, premium par and discount bonds

Below are some statements about loans and bonds. The first descriptive sentence is correct. But one of the second sentences about the loans' or bonds' prices is not correct. Which statement is NOT correct? Assume that interest rates are positive.

Note that coupons or interest payments are the periodic payments made throughout a bond or loan's life. The face or par value of a bond or loan is the amount paid at the end when the debt matures.

(a) A bullet loan has no interest payments but it does have a face value. Therefore it's a discount loan.

(b) A fully amortising loan has interest payments but does not have a face value. Therefore it's a premium loan.

(c) An interest only loan has interest payments and its price and face value are equal. Therefore it's a par loan.

(d) A zero coupon bond has no coupon payments but it does have a face value. Therefore it's a premium bond.

(e) A balloon loan has interest payments and its face value is more than its price. Therefore it's a discount loan.

Question 469  franking credit, personal tax on dividends, imputation tax system, no explanation

A firm pays a fully franked cash dividend of $70 to one of its Australian shareholders who has a personal marginal tax rate of 45%. The corporate tax rate is 30%.

What will be the shareholder's personal tax payable due to the dividend payment?

(a) $13.50

(b) $15.00

(c) $30.00

(d) $31.50

(e) $45.00

Question 486  capital budgeting, opportunity cost, sunk cost

A young lady is trying to decide if she should attend university. Her friends say that she should go to university because she is more likely to meet a clever young man than if she begins full time work straight away.

What's the correct way to classify this item from a capital budgeting perspective when trying to find the Net Present Value of going to university rather than working?

The opportunity to meet a desirable future spouse should be classified as:

(a) A sunk cost.

(b) An opportunity cost.

(c) A negative side effect.

(d) A positive side effect.

(e) A depreciation expense.

Question 733  DDM, income and capital returns

A share’s current price is $60. It’s expected to pay a dividend of $1.50 in one year. The growth rate of the dividend is 0.5% pa and the stock’s required total return is 3% pa. The stock’s price can be modeled using the dividend discount model (DDM):

##P_0=\dfrac{C_1}{r-g}##

Which of the following methods is NOT equal to the stock’s expected price in one year and six months (t=1.5 years)? Note that the symbolic formulas shown in each line below do equal the formulas with numbers. The formula is just repeated with symbols and then numbers in case it helps you to identify the incorrect statement more quickly.

(a) ##P_{1.5}=P_0 (1+g)^1 (1+r)^{0.5}=60(1+0.005)^1 (1+0.03)^{0.5}##

(b) ##P_{1.5}=(P_0 (1+r)^1-C_1 ) (1+r)^{0.5}=(60(1+0.03)^1-1.5) (1+0.03)^{0.5}##

(c) ##P_{1.5}=\dfrac{C_1}{r-g} (1+r)^1 (1+g)^{0.5}=\dfrac{1.5}{0.03-0.005} (1+0.03)^1 (1+0.005)^{0.5}##

(d) ##P_{1.5}=\dfrac{C_1 (1+g)^1}{r-g} (1+r)^{0.5}=\dfrac{1.5(1+0.005)^1}{0.03-0.005} (1+0.03)^{0.5}##

(e) ##P_{1.5}=\dfrac{C_1 (1+g)^2}{r-g}/(1+r)^{0.5} +C_1 (1+g)^1/(1+r)^{0.5} =\dfrac{1.5(1+0.005)^2}{0.03-0.005}/(1+0.03)^{0.5} +1.5(1+0.005)^1/(1+0.03)^{0.5} ##

Question 862  yield curve, bond pricing, bill pricing, monetary policy, no explanation

Refer to the below graph when answering the questions.

Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

(a) The 3-month government bill yield is likely to be given as a simple interest rate.

(b) The 10-year government bond yield is likely to be given as an annualised percentage rate compounding every six months since Japanese government bonds pay semi-annual coupons.

(c) As 10-year government bond yields fell over the last few years, bond investors would have made capital gains assuming that the bonds are fixed-coupon.

(d) The Japanese yield curve is ‘inverse’ at the latest time in mid-2017.

(e) The Japanese central bank has been maintaining expansionary monetary policy over the last few years.