**Question 65** annuity with growth, needs refinement

Which of the below formulas gives the present value of an annuity with growth?

**Hint**: The equation of a perpetuity without growth is: ###V_\text{0, perp without growth} = \frac{C_\text{1}}{r}###

The formula for the present value of an annuity without growth is derived from the formula for a perpetuity without growth.

The idea is than an annuity with T payments from t=1 to T inclusive is equivalent to a perpetuity starting at t=1 with fixed positive cash flows, plus a perpetuity starting T periods later (t=T+1) with fixed negative cash flows. The positive and negative cash flows after time period T cancel each other out, leaving the positive cash flows between t=1 to T, which is the annuity.

###\begin{aligned} V_\text{0, annuity} &= V_\text{0, perp without growth from t=1} - V_\text{0, perp without growth from t=T+1} \\ &= \dfrac{C_\text{1}}{r} - \dfrac{ \left( \dfrac{C_\text{T+1}}{r} \right) }{(1+r)^T} \\ &= \dfrac{C_\text{1}}{r} - \dfrac{ \left( \dfrac{C_\text{1}}{r} \right) }{(1+r)^T} \\ &= \dfrac{C_\text{1}}{r}\left(1 - \dfrac{1}{(1+r)^T}\right) \\ \end{aligned}###

The equation of a perpetuity with growth is:

###V_\text{0, perp with growth} = \dfrac{C_\text{1}}{r-g}###Three important classes of investable risky assets are:

- Corporate debt which has low total risk,
- Real estate which has medium total risk,
- Equity which has high total risk.

Assume that the correlation between total returns on:

- Corporate debt and real estate is 0.1,
- Corporate debt and equity is 0.1,
- Real estate and equity is 0.5.

You are considering investing all of your wealth in one or more of these asset classes. Which portfolio will give the lowest total risk? You are restricted from shorting any of these assets. Disregard returns and the risk-return trade-off, pretend that you are only concerned with minimising risk.

Your friend is trying to find the net present value of a project. The project is expected to last for just one year with:

- a negative cash flow of
**-**$**1**million initially (t=0), and - a positive cash flow of $
**1.1**million in one year (t=1).

The project has a total required return of 10% pa due to its moderate level of undiversifiable risk.

Your friend is aware of the importance of opportunity costs and the time value of money, but he is unsure of how to find the NPV of the project.

He knows that the opportunity cost of investing the $1m in the project is the expected gain from investing the money in shares instead. Like the project, shares also have an expected return of 10% since they have moderate undiversifiable risk. This opportunity cost is $0.1m ##(=1m \times 10\%)## which occurs in one year (t=1).

He knows that the time value of money should be accounted for, and this can be done by finding the present value of the cash flows in one year.

Your friend has listed a few different ways to find the NPV which are written down below.

(I) ##-1m + \dfrac{1.1m}{(1+0.1)^1} ##

(II) ##-1m + \dfrac{1.1m}{(1+0.1)^1} - \dfrac{1m}{(1+0.1)^1} \times 0.1 ##

(III) ##-1m + \dfrac{1.1m}{(1+0.1)^1} - \dfrac{1.1m}{(1+0.1)^1} \times 0.1 ##

(IV) ##-1m + 1.1m - \dfrac{1.1m}{(1+0.1)^1} \times 0.1 ##

(V) ##-1m + 1.1m - 1.1m \times 0.1 ##

Which of the above calculations give the correct NPV? Select the most correct answer.