Fight Finance

Question 152  NPV, Annuity

The following cash flows are expected:

• 10 yearly payments of $80, with the first payment in 3 years from now (first payment at t=3).
• 1 payment of $600 in 5 years and 6 months (t=5.5) from now.

What is the NPV of the cash flows if the discount rate is 10% given as an effective annual rate?

(a) $1,006.25

(b) $846.78

(c) $761.47

(d) $741.87

(e) $724.54

Question 167  NPV, IRR

A project's net present value (NPV) is negative. Select the most correct statement.

(a) The project should be accepted.

(b) The project's IRR is less than its required return.

(c) The project's IRR is more than its required return.

(d) The project's IRR is equal to its required return.

(e) The project is under-priced.

Question 253  NPV, APR

You just started work at your new job which pays $48,000 per year.

The human resources department have given you the option of being paid at the end of every week or every month.

Assume that there are 4 weeks per month, 12 months per year and 48 weeks per year.

Bank interest rates are 12% pa given as an APR compounding per month.

What is the dollar gain over one year, as a net present value, of being paid every week rather than every month?

(a) $179.6269

(b) $177.8484

(c) $168.4762

(d) $166.8081

(e) $165.1565

Question 367  CFFA, interest tax shield

There are many ways to calculate a firm's free cash flow (FFCF), also called cash flow from assets (CFFA). Some include the annual interest tax shield in the cash flow and some do not.

Which of the below FFCF formulas include the interest tax shield in the cash flow?

###(1) \quad FFCF=NI + Depr - CapEx -ΔNWC + IntExp### ###(2) \quad FFCF=NI + Depr - CapEx -ΔNWC + IntExp.(1-t_c)### ###(3) \quad FFCF=EBIT.(1-t_c )+ Depr- CapEx -ΔNWC+IntExp.t_c### ###(4) \quad FFCF=EBIT.(1-t_c) + Depr- CapEx -ΔNWC### ###(5) \quad FFCF=EBITDA.(1-t_c )+Depr.t_c- CapEx -ΔNWC+IntExp.t_c### ###(6) \quad FFCF=EBITDA.(1-t_c )+Depr.t_c- CapEx -ΔNWC### ###(7) \quad FFCF=EBIT-Tax + Depr - CapEx -ΔNWC### ###(8) \quad FFCF=EBIT-Tax + Depr - CapEx -ΔNWC-IntExp.t_c### ###(9) \quad FFCF=EBITDA-Tax - CapEx -ΔNWC### ###(10) \quad FFCF=EBITDA-Tax - CapEx -ΔNWC-IntExp.t_c###

The formulas for net income (NI also called earnings), EBIT and EBITDA are given below. Assume that depreciation and amortisation are both represented by 'Depr' and that 'FC' represents fixed costs such as rent.

###NI=(Rev - COGS - Depr - FC - IntExp).(1-t_c )### ###EBIT=Rev - COGS - FC-Depr### ###EBITDA=Rev - COGS - FC### ###Tax =(Rev - COGS - Depr - FC - IntExp).t_c= \dfrac{NI.t_c}{1-t_c}###

(a) 1, 3, 5, 7, 9.

(b) 2, 4, 6, 8, 10.

(c) 1, 4, 6, 8, 10.

(d) 2, 3, 5, 7, 9.

(e) 1, 3, 5, 8, 10.

Question 465  NPV, perpetuity

The boss of WorkingForTheManCorp has a wicked (and unethical) idea. He plans to pay his poor workers one week late so that he can get more interest on his cash in the bank.

Every week he is supposed to pay his 1,000 employees $1,000 each. So $1 million is paid to employees every week.

The boss was just about to pay his employees today, until he thought of this idea so he will actually pay them one week (7 days) later for the work they did last week and every week in the future, forever.

Bank interest rates are 10% pa, given as a real effective annual rate. So ##r_\text{eff annual, real} = 0.1## and the real effective weekly rate is therefore ##r_\text{eff weekly, real} = (1+0.1)^{1/52}-1 = 0.001834569##

All rates and cash flows are real, the inflation rate is 3% pa and there are 52 weeks per year. The boss will always pay wages one week late. The business will operate forever with constant real wages and the same number of employees.

What is the net present value (NPV) of the boss's decision to pay later?

(a) $261.16

(b) $1,919.39

(c) $13,580.21

(d) $18,295.38

(e) $1,000,000.00

Question 469  franking credit, personal tax on dividends, imputation tax system, no explanation

A firm pays a fully franked cash dividend of $70 to one of its Australian shareholders who has a personal marginal tax rate of 45%. The corporate tax rate is 30%.

What will be the shareholder's personal tax payable due to the dividend payment?

(a) $13.50

(b) $15.00

(c) $30.00

(d) $31.50

(e) $45.00

Question 624  franking credit, personal tax on dividends, imputation tax system, no explanation

Which of the following statements about Australian franking credits is NOT correct? Franking credits:

(a) Refund the corporate tax paid by companies to their individual shareholders. Therefore they prevent the double-taxation of dividends at the corporate and personal level.

(b) Are distributed to shareholders together with cash dividends.

(c) Are also called imputation credits.

(d) Are worthless to individuals who earn less than the tax-free threshold because they have a zero marginal personal tax rate.

(e) Are worthless to individual shareholders who are foreigners for tax purposes.

Question 706  utility, risk aversion, utility function

Mr Blue, Miss Red and Mrs Green are people with different utility functions.

Note that a fair gamble is a bet that has an expected value of zero, such as paying $0.50 to win $1 in a coin flip with heads or nothing if it lands tails. Fairly priced insurance is when the expected present value of the insurance premiums is equal to the expected loss from the disaster that the insurance protects against, such as the cost of rebuilding a home after a catastrophic fire.

Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

(a) Mr Blue, Miss Red and Mrs Green all prefer more wealth to less. This is rational from an economist's point of view.

(b) Mr Blue is risk averse. He will not enjoy a fair gamble and would like to buy fairly priced insurance.

(c) Miss Red is risk-neutral. She will not enjoy a fair gamble but wouldn't oppose it either. Similarly with fairly priced insurance.

(d) Mrs Green is risk-loving. She would enjoy a fair gamble and would dislike fairly priced insurance.

(e) Mr Blue would like to buy insurance, but only if it is fairly or under priced.

Question 836  VaR, no explanation

The 95% daily VaR corresponds to the result on the:

(a) Best day of the 5% worst days’ results.

(b) Worst day of the 5% worst days’ results.

(c) Best day of the 5% best days’ results.

(d) Worst day of the 5% best days’ results.

(e) Best day of the 95% worst days’ results.

Question 868  cash cycle

What is the Cash Conversion Cycle for a firm with a:

• Payables period of 1 day;
• Inventory period of 50 days; and
• Receivables period of 30 days?

All answer options are in days:

(a) 19

(b) 21

(c) 79

(d) 80

(e) 81