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Question 99 capital structure, interest tax shield, Miller and Modigliani, trade off theory of capital structure

A firm changes its capital structure by issuing a large amount of debt and using the funds to repurchase shares. Its assets are unchanged.

Assume that:

The firm and individual investors can borrow at the same rate and have the same tax rates.
The firm's debt and shares are fairly priced and the shares are repurchased at the market price, not at a premium.
There are no market frictions relating to debt such as asymmetric information or transaction costs.
Shareholders wealth is measured in terms of utiliity. Shareholders are wealth-maximising and risk-averse. They have a preferred level of overall leverage. Before the firm's capital restructure all shareholders were optimally levered.

According to Miller and Modigliani's theory, which statement is correct?

(a) The firm's share price and shareholder wealth will both decrease. This is because the firm will have more debt and therefore more risk so the discount rate applied to its cash flows will be higher, decreasing the value of the firm and therefore the value of the firm's equity and share price.

(b) The firm's share price and shareholder wealth will both increase. This is because the firm will have more debt which will amplify the returns of equity investors. This will mean that returns on equity can be much higher and investors will pay a premium for this, leading to an increase in the stock price.

(c) The firm's share price and shareholder wealth will both increase since it has more debt and therefore more tax shields.

(d) The firm's share price will increase due to the higher value of tax shields. But shareholder wealth will remain unchanged because capital structure is irrelevant when investors can use home-made leverage to create tax-shields themselves.

(e) The firm's share price and shareholder wealth will both increase. This is because the cost of debt is cheaper than equity, leading to a lower (before and after tax) WACC. This lower WACC will lead to a higher value of the firm and a higher share price.

Question 115 capital structure, leverage, WACC

A firm has a debt-to-assets ratio of 50%. The firm then issues a large amount of debt to raise money for new projects of similar market risk to the company's existing projects. Assume a classical tax system. Which statement is correct?

Question 160 interest only loan

You want to buy an apartment priced at $500,000. You have saved a deposit of $50,000. The bank has agreed to lend you the $450,000 as an interest only loan with a term of 30 years. The interest rate is 6% pa and is not expected to change. What will be your monthly payments?

Question 163 bond pricing, premium par and discount bonds

Bonds X and Y are issued by different companies, but they both pay a semi-annual coupon of 10% pa and they have the same face value ($100), maturity (3 years) and yield (10%) as each other.

Which of the following statements is true?

Question 347 PE ratio, Multiples valuation

Which of the following investable assets are NOT suitable for valuation using PE multiples techniques?

Question 657 systematic and idiosyncratic risk, CAPM, no explanation

A stock's required total return will decrease when its:

Question 713 effective rate conversion

An effective semi-annual return of 5% ##(r_\text{eff 6mth})## is equivalent to an effective annual return ##(r_\text{eff annual})## of:

Question 717 return distribution

The below three graphs show probability density functions (PDF) of three different random variables Red, Green and Blue. Let ##P_1## be the unknown price of a stock in one year. ##P_1## is a random variable. Let ##P_0 = 1##, so the share price now is $1. This one dollar is a constant, it is not a variable.

Which of the below statements is NOT correct? Financial practitioners commonly assume that the shape of the PDF represented in the colour:

Question 835 VaR, no explanation

A company has a 95% daily Value at Risk (VaR) of $1 million. The units of this VaR are in:

Question 884 monetary policy, impossible trinity, foreign exchange rate, no explanation

According to the impossible trinity, a currency can only have two of these three desirable traits: be fixed against the USD; convertible to and from USD for traders and investors so there are open goods, services and capital markets; and allow independent monetary policy set by the country’s central bank, independent of the US central bank.

Which of the following exchange rate regimes sacrifices fixing the exchange rate to the USD? In other words, which regime uses a floating exchange rate?