For certain shares, the forward-looking Price-Earnings Ratio (##P_0/EPS_1##) is equal to the inverse of the share's total expected return (##1/r_\text{total}##). For what shares is this true?

Use the general accounting definition of 'payout ratio' which is dividends per share (DPS) divided by earnings per share (EPS) and assume that all cash flows, earnings and rates are real rather than nominal.

A company's forward-looking PE ratio will be the inverse of its total expected return on equity when it has a:

Estimate Microsoft's (MSFT) share price using a price earnings (PE) multiples approach with the following assumptions and figures only:

- Apple, Google and Microsoft are comparable companies,
- Apple's (AAPL) share price is $526.24 and historical EPS is $40.32.
- Google's (GOOG) share price is $1,215.65 and historical EPS is $36.23.
- Micrsoft's (MSFT) historical earnings per share (EPS) is $2.71.

Source: Google Finance 28 Feb 2014.

Which of the following investable assets are **NOT** suitable for valuation using PE multiples techniques?

Estimate the US bank JP Morgan's share price using a price earnings (PE) multiples approach with the following assumptions and figures only:

- The major US banks JP Morgan Chase (JPM), Citi Group (C) and Wells Fargo (WFC) are comparable companies;
- JP Morgan Chase's historical earnings per share (EPS) is $
**4.37**; - Citi Group's share price is $
**50.05**and historical EPS is $**4.26**; - Wells Fargo's share price is $
**48.98**and historical EPS is $**3.89**.

Note: Figures sourced from Google Finance on 24 March 2014.

Which firms tend to have **low** forward-looking price-earnings (PE) ratios?

Only consider firms with positive earnings, disregard firms with negative earnings and therefore negative PE ratios.

Which of the following investable assets are **NOT** suitable for valuation using PE multiples techniques?

Estimate the Chinese bank ICBC's share price using a backward-looking price earnings (PE) multiples approach with the following assumptions and figures only. Note that the renminbi (RMB) is the Chinese currency, also known as the yuan (CNY).

- The 4 major Chinese banks ICBC, China Construction Bank (CCB), Bank of China (BOC) and Agricultural Bank of China (ABC) are comparable companies;
- ICBC 's historical earnings per share (EPS) is RMB
**0.74**; - CCB's backward-looking PE ratio is
**4.59**; - BOC 's backward-looking PE ratio is
**4.78**; - ABC's backward-looking PE ratio is also
**4.78**;

Note: Figures sourced from Google Finance on 25 March 2014. Share prices are from the Shanghai stock exchange.

Which firms tend to have **high** forward-looking price-earnings (PE) ratios?

Which of the following companies is most suitable for valuation using PE multiples techniques?

Which of the following investable assets is the **LEAST** suitable for valuation using PE multiples techniques?

A mature firm has constant expected future earnings and dividends. Both amounts are equal. So earnings and dividends are expected to be equal and unchanging.

Which of the following statements is **NOT** correct?

Which firms tend to have **low** forward-looking price-earnings (PE) ratios? Only consider firms with positive PE ratios.

Private equity firms are known to buy medium sized private companies operating in the same industry, merge them together into a larger company, and then sell it off in a public float (initial public offering, IPO).

If medium-sized private companies trade at PE ratios of **5** and larger listed companies trade at PE ratios of **15**, what return can be achieved from this strategy?

Assume that:

- The medium-sized companies can be bought, merged and sold in an IPO instantaneously.
- There are no costs of finding, valuing, merging and restructuring the medium sized companies. Also, there is no competition to buy the medium-sized companies from other private equity firms.
- The large merged firm's earnings are the sum of the medium firms' earnings.
- The only reason for the difference in medium and large firm's PE ratios is due to the illiquidity of the medium firms' shares.
- Return is defined as: ##r_{0→1} = (p_1-p_0+c_1)/p_0## , where time zero is just before the merger and time one is just after.

A firm has **1** million shares which trade at a price of $**30** each. The firm is expected to announce earnings of $**3** million at the end of the year and pay an annual dividend of $**1.50** per share.

What is the firm's (forward looking) price/earnings (PE) ratio?

The below screenshot of Commonwealth Bank of Australia's (CBA) details were taken from the Google Finance website on 7 Nov 2014. Some information has been deliberately blanked out.

What was CBA's backwards-looking price-earnings ratio?

The below screenshot of Microsoft's (MSFT) details were taken from the Google Finance website on 28 Nov 2014. Some information has been deliberately blanked out.

What was MSFT's backwards-looking price-earnings ratio?

A firm has **2**m shares and a market capitalisation of equity of $**30**m. The firm just announced earnings of $**5**m and paid an annual dividend of $**0.75** per share.

What is the firm's (backward looking) price/earnings (PE) ratio?

Estimate the French bank Societe Generale's share price using a backward-looking price earnings (PE) multiples approach with the following assumptions and figures only. Note that EUR is the euro, the European monetary union's currency.

- The 4 major European banks Credit Agricole (ACA), Deutsche Bank AG (DBK), UniCredit (UCG) and Banco Santander (SAN) are comparable companies to Societe Generale (GLE);
- Societe Generale's (GLE's) historical earnings per share (EPS) is EUR 2.92;
- ACA's backward-looking PE ratio is 16.29 and historical EPS is EUR 0.84;
- DBK's backward-looking PE ratio is 25.01 and historical EPS is EUR 1.26;
- SAN's backward-looking PE ratio is 14.71 and historical EPS is EUR 0.47;
- UCG's backward-looking PE ratio is 15.78 and historical EPS is EUR 0.40;

Note: Figures sourced from Google Finance on 27 March 2015.

**Question 547** PE ratio, Multiples valuation, DDM, income and capital returns, no explanation

A firm pays out all of its earnings as dividends. Because of this, the firm has no real growth in earnings, dividends or stock price since there is no re-investment back into the firm to buy new assets and make higher earnings. The dividend discount model is suitable to value this company.

The firm's revenues and costs are expected to increase by inflation in the foreseeable future. The firm has no debt. It operates in the services industry and has few physical assets so there is negligible depreciation expense and negligible net working capital required.

Which of the following statements about this firm's PE ratio is **NOT** correct? The PE ratio should:

Note: The inverse of x is 1/x.

**Question 749** Multiples valuation, PE ratio, price to revenue ratio, price to book ratio, NPV

A real estate agent says that the price of a house in Sydney Australia is approximately equal to the gross weekly rent times 1000.

What type of valuation method is the real estate agent using?

Itau Unibanco is a major listed bank in Brazil with a market capitalisation of equity equal to BRL **85.744** billion, EPS of **BRL 3.96** and **2.97** billion shares on issue.

Banco Bradesco is another major bank with total earnings of BRL **8.77** billion and **2.52** billion shares on issue.

Estimate Banco Bradesco's current share price using a price-earnings multiples approach assuming that Itau Unibanco is a comparable firm.

Note that BRL is the Brazilian Real, their currency. Figures sourced from Google Finance on the market close of the BVMF on 24/7/15.

**Question 905** market capitalisation of equity, PE ratio, payout ratio

The below graph shows the computer software company Microsoft's stock price (MSFT) at the market close on the NASDAQ on Friday 1 June 2018.

Based on the screenshot above, which of the following statements about MSFT is **NOT** correct? MSFT's:

**Question 989** PE ratio, Multiples valuation, leverage, accounting ratio

A firm has 20 million shares, earnings (or net income) of $100 million per annum and a 60% debt-to-**equity** ratio where both the debt and asset values are market values rather than book values. Similar firms have a PE ratio of 12.

Which of the below statements is **NOT** correct based on a PE multiples valuation?