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Question 165  DDM, PE ratio, payout ratio

For certain shares, the forward-looking Price-Earnings Ratio (##P_0/EPS_1##) is equal to the inverse of the share's total expected return (##1/r_\text{total}##).

For what shares is this true?

Assume:

  • The general accounting definition of 'payout ratio' which is dividends per share (DPS) divided by earnings per share (EPS).
  • All cash flows, earnings and rates are real.



Question 475  payout ratio, dividend, no explanation

The below screenshot of Commonwealth Bank of Australia's (CBA) details were taken from the Google Finance website on 7 Nov 2014. Some information has been deliberately blanked out.

Image of CBA on Google finance on 7 Nov 2014

What was CBA's approximate payout ratio over the 2014 financial year?

Note that the firm's interim and final dividends were $1.83 and $2.18 respectively over the 2014 financial year.



Question 484  payout ratio, dividend, no explanation

The below screenshot of Microsoft's (MSFT) details were taken from the Google Finance website on 28 Nov 2014. Some information has been deliberately blanked out.

Image of MSFT on Google finance on 28 Nov 2014

What was MSFT's approximate payout ratio over the last year?

Note that MSFT's past four quarterly dividends were $0.31, $0.28, $0.28 and $0.28.



Question 488  income and capital returns, payout policy, payout ratio, DDM

Two companies BigDiv and ZeroDiv are exactly the same except for their dividend payouts.

BigDiv pays large dividends and ZeroDiv doesn't pay any dividends.

Currently the two firms have the same earnings, assets, number of shares, share price, expected total return and risk.

Assume a perfect world with no taxes, no transaction costs, no asymmetric information and that all assets including business projects are fairly priced and therefore zero-NPV.

All things remaining equal, which of the following statements is NOT correct?




Copyright © 2014 Keith Woodward