# Fight Finance

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The following equation is the Dividend Discount Model, also known as the 'Gordon Growth Model' or the 'Perpetuity with growth' equation.

$$p_{0} = \frac{c_1}{r_{\text{eff}} - g_{\text{eff}}}$$

What is the discount rate '$r_\text{eff}$' in this equation?

A stock is expected to pay the following dividends:

 Cash Flows of a Stock Time (yrs) 0 1 2 3 4 ... Dividend ($) 0.00 1.00 1.05 1.10 1.15 ... After year 4, the annual dividend will grow in perpetuity at 5% pa, so; • the dividend at t=5 will be$1.15(1+0.05),
• the dividend at t=6 will be $1.15(1+0.05)^2, and so on. The required return on the stock is 10% pa. Both the growth rate and required return are given as effective annual rates. What will be the price of the stock in three and a half years (t = 3.5)? A firm has forecast its Cash Flow From Assets (CFFA) for this year and management is worried that it is too low. Which one of the following actions will lead to a higher CFFA for this year (t=0 to 1)? Only consider cash flows this year. Do not consider cash flows after one year, or the change in the NPV of the firm. Consider each action in isolation. Details of two different types of desserts or edible treats are given below: • High-sugar treats like candy, chocolate and ice cream make a person very happy. High sugar treats are cheap at only$2 per day.
• Low-sugar treats like nuts, cheese and fruit make a person equally happy if these foods are of high quality. Low sugar treats are more expensive at $4 per day. The advantage of low-sugar treats is that a person only needs to pay the dentist$2,000 for fillings and root canal therapy once every 15 years. Whereas with high-sugar treats, that treatment needs to be done every 5 years.

The real discount rate is 10%, given as an effective annual rate. Assume that there are 365 days in every year and that all cash flows are real. The inflation rate is 3% given as an effective annual rate.

Find the equivalent annual cash flow (EAC) of the high-sugar treats and low-sugar treats, including dental costs. The below choices are listed in that order.

Ignore the pain of dental therapy, personal preferences and other factors.

One year ago a pharmaceutical firm floated by selling its 1 million shares for $100 each. Its book and market values of equity were both$100m. Its debt totalled $50m. The required return on the firm's assets was 15%, equity 20% and debt 5% pa. In the year since then, the firm: • Earned net income of$29m.
• Paid dividends totaling \$10m.
• Discovered a valuable new drug that will lead to a massive 1,000 times increase in the firm's net income in 10 years after the research is commercialised. News of the discovery was publicly announced. The firm's systematic risk remains unchanged.

Which of the following statements is NOT correct? All statements are about current figures, not figures one year ago.

Hint: Book return on assets (ROA) and book return on equity (ROE) are ratios that accountants like to use to measure a business's past performance.

$$\text{ROA}= \dfrac{\text{Net income}}{\text{Book value of assets}}$$

$$\text{ROE}= \dfrac{\text{Net income}}{\text{Book value of equity}}$$

The required return on assets $r_V$ is a return that financiers like to use to estimate a business's future required performance which compensates them for the firm's assets' risks. If the business were to achieve realised historical returns equal to its required returns, then investment into the business's assets would have been a zero-NPV decision, which is neither good nor bad but fair.

$$r_\text{V, 0 to 1}= \dfrac{\text{Cash flow from assets}_\text{1}}{\text{Market value of assets}_\text{0}} = \dfrac{CFFA_\text{1}}{V_\text{0}}$$

Similarly for equity and debt.

High risk firms in danger of bankruptcy tend to have:

Let the 'income return' of a bond be the coupon at the end of the period divided by the market price now at the start of the period $(C_1/P_0)$. The expected income return of a premium fixed coupon bond is:

Which of the below formulas gives the payoff $(f)$ at maturity $(T)$ from being short a call option? Let the underlying asset price at maturity be $S_T$ and the exercise price be $X_T$.

Here is a table of stock prices and returns. Which of the statements below the table is NOT correct?

 Price and Return Population Statistics Time Prices LGDR GDR NDR 0 100 1 99 -0.010050 0.990000 -0.010000 2 180.40 0.600057 1.822222 0.822222 3 112.73 0.470181 0.624889 0.375111 Arithmetic average 0.0399 1.1457 0.1457 Arithmetic standard deviation 0.4384 0.5011 0.5011

If a put option is out-of-the-money, then the spot price ($S_0$) is than, than or to the put option's strike price ($K_T$)?