Fight Finance

Question 186  DDM, income and capital returns

Here's the Dividend Discount Model, used to price stocks:

### p_0=\frac{d_1}{r-g} ###

All rates are effective annual rates and the cash flows (##d_1##) are received every year. Note that the r and g terms in the above DDM could also be labelled: ###r = r_{\text{total, 0}\rightarrow\text{1yr, eff 1yr}}### ###g = r_{\text{capital, 0}\rightarrow\text{1yr, eff 1yr}}### Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

(a) The expected dividend in 3 years will be: ##d_3 = d_1 (1+g)^2##.

(b) The expected price in 3 years will be: ##p_3 = p_0 (1+g)^3##.

(c) The expected effective 3 year total return measured over 3 years is equal to: ##r_{\text{total, 0}\rightarrow\text{3yr, eff 3yr}} = (1+r)^3-1##.

(d) The expected effective 3 year total return measured over 3 years will be: ##r_{\text{total, 0}\rightarrow\text{3yr, eff 3yr}} = \dfrac{p_3-p_0+d_3}{p_0}##.

(e) The expected effective annual dividend yield will be: ##r_{\text{dividend, 0}\rightarrow\text{3yr, eff annual}} = \dfrac{d_1}{p_0}##.

Question 279  diversification

Do you think that the following statement is or ? “Buying a single company stock usually provides a safer return than a stock mutual fund.”

Question 303  WACC, CAPM, CFFA

There are many different ways to value a firm's assets. Which of the following will NOT give the correct market value of a levered firm's assets ##(V_L)##? Assume that:

• The firm is financed by listed common stock and vanilla annual fixed coupon bonds, which are both traded in a liquid market.
• The bonds' yield is equal to the coupon rate, so the bonds are issued at par. The yield curve is flat and yields are not expected to change. When bonds mature they will be rolled over by issuing the same number of new bonds with the same expected yield and coupon rate, and so on forever.
• Tax rates on the dividends and capital gains received by investors are equal, and capital gains tax is paid every year, even on unrealised gains regardless of when the asset is sold.
• There is no re-investment of the firm's cash back into the business. All of the firm's excess cash flow is paid out as dividends so real growth is zero.
• The firm operates in a mature industry with zero real growth.
• All cash flows and rates in the below equations are real (not nominal) and are expected to be stable forever. Therefore the perpetuity equation with no growth is suitable for valuation.

(a) ##V_L = n_\text{shares}.P_\text{share} + n_\text{bonds}.P_\text{bond}##

(b) ##V_L = n_\text{shares}.\dfrac{\text{Dividend per share}}{r_f + \beta_{EL}(r_m - r_f)} + n_\text{bonds}.\dfrac{\text{Coupon per bond}}{r_f + \beta_D(r_m - r_f)}##

(c) ##V_L = \dfrac{\text{CFFA}_{L}}{r_\text{WACC before tax}}##

(d) ##V_L = \dfrac{\text{CFFA}_{U}}{r_\text{WACC after tax}}##

(e) ##V_L = \dfrac{\text{CFFA}_{L}}{r_\text{WACC after tax}}##

Where:

###r_\text{WACC before tax} = r_D.\frac{D}{V_L} + r_{EL}.\frac{E_L}{V_L} = \text{Weighted average cost of capital before tax}### ###r_\text{WACC after tax} = r_D.(1-t_c).\frac{D}{V_L} + r_{EL}.\frac{E_L}{V_L} = \text{Weighted average cost of capital after tax}### ###NI_L=(Rev-COGS-FC-Depr-\mathbf{IntExp}).(1-t_c) = \text{Net Income Levered}### ###CFFA_L=NI_L+Depr-CapEx - \varDelta NWC+\mathbf{IntExp} = \text{Cash Flow From Assets Levered}### ###NI_U=(Rev-COGS-FC-Depr).(1-t_c) = \text{Net Income Unlevered}### ###CFFA_U=NI_U+Depr-CapEx - \varDelta NWC= \text{Cash Flow From Assets Unlevered}###

Question 343  CFFA, capital budgeting

An old company's Firm Free Cash Flow (FFCF, same as CFFA) is forecast in the graph below.

To value the firm's assets, the terminal value needs to be calculated using the perpetuity with growth formula:

###V_{\text{terminal, }t-1} = \dfrac{FFCF_{\text{terminal, }t}}{r-g}###

Which point corresponds to the best time to calculate the terminal value?

(a) Point A.

(b) Point B.

(c) Point C.

(d) Any of the points.

(e) None of the points.

Question 366  opportunity cost, NPV, CFFA

Your friend is trying to find the net present value of an investment which:

• Costs $1 million initially (t=0); and
• Pays a single positive cash flow of $1.1 million in one year (t=1).

The investment has a total required return of 10% pa due to its moderate level of undiversifiable risk.

Your friend is aware of the importance of opportunity costs and the time value of money, but he is unsure of how to find the NPV of the project.

He knows that the opportunity cost of investing the $1m in the project is the expected gain from investing the money in shares instead. Like the project, shares also have an expected return of 10% since they have moderate undiversifiable risk. This opportunity cost is $0.1m ##(=1m \times 10\%)## which occurs in one year (t=1).

He knows that the time value of money should be accounted for, and this can be done by finding the present value of the cash flows in one year.

Your friend has listed a few different ways to find the NPV which are written down below.

Method 1: ##-1m + \dfrac{1.1m}{(1+0.1)^1} ##

Method 2: ##-1m + 1.1m - 1m \times 0.1 ##

Method 3: ##-1m + \dfrac{1.1m}{(1+0.1)^1} - 1m \times 0.1 ##

Which of the above calculations give the correct NPV? Select the most correct answer.

(a) Method 1 only.

(b) Method 2 only.

(c) Method 3 only.

(d) Methods 1 and 2 only.

(e) Methods 1 and 3 only.

Question 487  capital budgeting, opportunity cost, sunk cost

A young lady is trying to decide if she should attend university or begin working straight away in her home town.

The young lady's grandma says that she should not go to university because she is less likely to marry the local village boy whom she likes because she will spend less time with him if she attends university.

What's the correct way to classify this item from a capital budgeting perspective when trying to decide whether to attend university?

The cost of not marrying the local village boy should be classified as:

(a) A sunk cost.

(b) An opportunity cost.

(c) A non-pecuniary cost that should be disregarded.

(d) A positive side effect.

(e) A depreciation expense.

Question 530  Annuity, annuity due, no explanation

You are promised 20 payments of $100, where the first payment is immediate (t=0) and the last is at the end of the 19th year (t=19). The effective annual discount rate is ##r##.

Which of the following equations does NOT give the correct present value of these 20 payments?

(a) ##V_0=\dfrac{\dfrac{100}{r} \left( 1- \dfrac{1}{(1+r)^{20}} \right) }{(1+r)^1} ##

(b) ##V_0=\dfrac{100}{r} \left( 1- \dfrac{1}{(1+r)^{20}} \right) (1+r)^1##

(c) ##V_0=\dfrac{100}{r} \left( 1- \dfrac{1}{(1+r)^{19}} \right) +100##

(d) ##V_0=\dfrac{100(1+r)^1}{r} \left( 1- \dfrac{1}{(1+r)^{20}} \right) ##

(e) ##V_0=100 \left( 1-(1+r)^{-19} \right) r^{-1}+100##

Question 543  price gains and returns over time, IRR, NPV, income and capital returns, effective return

For an asset price to triple every 5 years, what must be the expected future capital return, given as an effective annual rate?

(a) 0.6

(b) 0.319508

(c) 0.269705

(d) 0.245731

(e) 0.219755

Question 649  margin call, future

A trader sells a one year futures contract on crude oil. The contract is for the delivery of 1,000 barrels. The current futures price is $38.94 per barrel. The initial margin is $3,410 per contract, and the maintenance margin is $3,100 per contract.

What is the smallest price change that would lead to a margin call for the seller?

(a) A price rise of $0.087571 per barrel.

(b) A price rise of $0.31 per barrel.

(c) A price rise of $3.41 per barrel.

(d) A price rise of $3.54 per barrel.

(e) A price rise of $3.894 per barrel.

Question 920  SML, CAPM, Sharpe ratio, Treynor ratio, Jensens alpha, no explanation

Over-priced assets should NOT:

(a) Have Sharpe ratios less than the market’s.

(b) Have Treynor ratios that are negative.

(c) Have Jensen’s alphas that are negative.

(d) Be sold.

(e) Plot below the Security Market Line (SML).