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A firm has forecast its Cash Flow From Assets (CFFA) for this year and management is worried that it is too low. Which one of the following actions will lead to a higher CFFA for this year (t=0 to 1)? Only consider cash flows this year. Do not consider cash flows after one year, or the change in the NPV of the firm. Consider each action in isolation.

(a) Buy less land, buildings and trucks than what was planned. Assume that this has no impact on revenue.

(b) Pay off more debt than was planned, to reduce the firm’s interest expense.

(c) Change the depreciation method used for tax purposes from diminishing value to straight line, so less depreciation occurs this year and more occurs in later years. Assume that the government’s tax department allow this.

(d) Buying more inventory than was planned, so there is an increase in net working capital. Assume that there is no increase in sales.

(e) Raising new equity through a rights issue. Assume that all of the money raised is spent on new capital assets such as land and trucks, but they will be fitted out and delivered in one year so no new cash will be earned from them.

Question 247 cross currency interest rate parity, no explanation

In the so called 'Swiss Loans Affair' of the 1980's, Australian banks offered loans denominated in Swiss Francs to Australian farmers at interest rates as low as 4% pa. This was far lower than interest rates on Australian Dollar loans which were above 10% due to very high inflation in Australia at the time.

In the late-1980's there was a large depreciation in the Australian Dollar. The Australian Dollar nearly halved in value against the Swiss Franc. Many Australian farmers went bankrupt since they couldn't afford the interest payments on the Swiss Franc loans because the Australian Dollar value of those payments nearly doubled. The farmers accused the banks of promoting Swiss Franc loans without making them aware of the risks.

What fundamental principal of finance did the Australian farmers (and the bankers) fail to understand?

Question 278 inflation, real and nominal returns and cash flows

Imagine that the interest rate on your savings account was 1% per year and inflation was 2% per year.

Question 303 WACC, CAPM, CFFA

There are many different ways to value a firm's assets. Which of the following will NOT give the correct market value of a levered firm's assets ##(V_L)##? Assume that:

The firm is financed by listed common stock and vanilla annual fixed coupon bonds, which are both traded in a liquid market.
The bonds' yield is equal to the coupon rate, so the bonds are issued at par. The yield curve is flat and yields are not expected to change. When bonds mature they will be rolled over by issuing the same number of new bonds with the same expected yield and coupon rate, and so on forever.
Tax rates on the dividends and capital gains received by investors are equal, and capital gains tax is paid every year, even on unrealised gains regardless of when the asset is sold.
There is no re-investment of the firm's cash back into the business. All of the firm's excess cash flow is paid out as dividends so real growth is zero.
The firm operates in a mature industry with zero real growth.
All cash flows and rates in the below equations are real (not nominal) and are expected to be stable forever. Therefore the perpetuity equation with no growth is suitable for valuation.

Where:

###r_\text{WACC before tax} = r_D.\frac{D}{V_L} + r_{EL}.\frac{E_L}{V_L} = \text{Weighted average cost of capital before tax}### ###r_\text{WACC after tax} = r_D.(1-t_c).\frac{D}{V_L} + r_{EL}.\frac{E_L}{V_L} = \text{Weighted average cost of capital after tax}### ###NI_L=(Rev-COGS-FC-Depr-\mathbf{IntExp}).(1-t_c) = \text{Net Income Levered}### ###CFFA_L=NI_L+Depr-CapEx - \varDelta NWC+\mathbf{IntExp} = \text{Cash Flow From Assets Levered}### ###NI_U=(Rev-COGS-FC-Depr).(1-t_c) = \text{Net Income Unlevered}### ###CFFA_U=NI_U+Depr-CapEx - \varDelta NWC= \text{Cash Flow From Assets Unlevered}###

Question 383 Merton model of corporate debt, real option, option

In the Merton model of corporate debt, buying a levered company's debt is equivalent to buying the company's assets and:

Question 456 inflation, effective rate

In the 'Austin Powers' series of movies, the character Dr. Evil threatens to destroy the world unless the United Nations pays him a ransom (video 1, video 2). Dr. Evil makes the threat on two separate occasions:

In 1969 he demands a ransom of $1 million (=10^6), and again;
In 1997 he demands a ransom of $100 billion (=10^11).

If Dr. Evil's demands are equivalent in real terms, in other words $1 million will buy the same basket of goods in 1969 as $100 billion would in 1997, what was the implied inflation rate over the 28 years from 1969 to 1997?

The answer choices below are given as effective annual rates:

Question 678 option, option profit, no explanation

Which of the below formulas gives the profit ##(\pi)## from being short a put option? Let the underlying asset price at maturity be ##S_T##, the exercise price be ##X_T## and the option price be ##f_{LP,0}##. Note that ##S_T##, ##X_T## and ##f_{LP,0}## are all positive numbers.

Question 809 Markowitz portfolio theory, CAPM, Jensens alpha, CML, systematic and idiosyncratic risk

A graph of assets’ expected returns ##(\mu)## versus standard deviations ##(\sigma)## is given in the graph below. The CML is the capital market line.

Which of the following statements about this graph, Markowitz portfolio theory and the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) theory is NOT correct?

(a) The market portfolio M has systematic risk only. It’s a fully diversified portfolio comprised of all individual risky assets. The market portfolio is usually assumed to be the equity index, such as the ASX200 in Australia or the S&P500 in the US.

(b) The risk free security has no risk at all. Government bonds are usually assumed to be the risk-free security.

(c) Portfolio combinations of the market portfolio and risk free security will plot on the CML and will have systematic risk only. They will have no diversifiable risk.

(d) The portfolios on the CML with a return above ##r_f## have maximum return for any given level of risk.

(e) The individual assets and portfolios with returns less than the risk free rate are over-priced, have a negative Jensen’s alpha and should be sold.

Question 894 balance of payments, current account, no explanation

Below are four graphs of Australia's external position, published in the RBA's chart pack.

Assume that all assets and liabilities are debt which makes interest income and equity which makes dividend income.

Which of the following statements is NOT correct? As at the end of 2017, Australia’s:

(a) Trade surplus was roughly zero, so Australians exported as much as they imported.

(b) Net Income was negative, so Australians paid more dividends and interest to foreigners than they received. This is probably because Australia has greater gross foreign liabilities than gross foreign assets.

(c) Current account deficit means Australians have to lend to foreigners by buying foreigners’ debt and equity which represent net capital outflows out of Australia.

(d) Net foreign equity liabilities were negative (less than zero) so Australians had positive net foreign equity assets which means that Australians owned more foreign shares than foreigners owned of Australian shares.

(e) Persistent current account deficit will make its net foreign liabilities greater and greater.

Question 920 SML, CAPM, Sharpe ratio, Treynor ratio, Jensens alpha, no explanation

Over-priced assets should NOT: