Question 65 annuity with growth, needs refinement
Which of the below formulas gives the present value of an annuity with growth?
Hint: The equation of a perpetuity without growth is: ###V_\text{0, perp without growth} = \frac{C_\text{1}}{r}###
The formula for the present value of an annuity without growth is derived from the formula for a perpetuity without growth.
The idea is than an annuity with T payments from t=1 to T inclusive is equivalent to a perpetuity starting at t=1 with fixed positive cash flows, plus a perpetuity starting T periods later (t=T+1) with fixed negative cash flows. The positive and negative cash flows after time period T cancel each other out, leaving the positive cash flows between t=1 to T, which is the annuity.
###\begin{aligned} V_\text{0, annuity} &= V_\text{0, perp without growth from t=1} - V_\text{0, perp without growth from t=T+1} \\ &= \dfrac{C_\text{1}}{r} - \dfrac{ \left( \dfrac{C_\text{T+1}}{r} \right) }{(1+r)^T} \\ &= \dfrac{C_\text{1}}{r} - \dfrac{ \left( \dfrac{C_\text{1}}{r} \right) }{(1+r)^T} \\ &= \dfrac{C_\text{1}}{r}\left(1 - \dfrac{1}{(1+r)^T}\right) \\ \end{aligned}###
The equation of a perpetuity with growth is:
###V_\text{0, perp with growth} = \dfrac{C_\text{1}}{r-g}###You have just sold an 'in the money' 6 month European put option on the mining company BHP at an exercise price of $40 for a premium of $3.
Which of the following statements best describes your situation?
A company increases the proportion of debt funding it uses to finance its assets by issuing bonds and using the cash to repurchase stock, leaving assets unchanged.
Ignoring the costs of financial distress, which of the following statements is NOT correct:
You believe that the price of a share will fall significantly very soon, but the rest of the market does not. The market thinks that the share price will remain the same. Assuming that your prediction will soon be true, which of the following trades is a bad idea? In other words, which trade will NOT make money or prevent losses?
An old company's Firm Free Cash Flow (FFCF, same as CFFA) is forecast in the graph below.
To value the firm's assets, the terminal value needs to be calculated using the perpetuity with growth formula:
###V_{\text{terminal, }t-1} = \dfrac{FFCF_{\text{terminal, }t}}{r-g}###
Which point corresponds to the best time to calculate the terminal value?
Question 405 DDM, income and capital returns, no explanation
The perpetuity with growth formula is:
###P_0= \dfrac{C_1}{r-g}###
Which of the following is NOT equal to the total required return (r)?
Which derivatives position has the possibility of unlimited potential gains?
A non-dividend paying stock has a current price of $20.
The risk free rate is 5% pa given as a continuously compounded rate.
Options on the stock are currently priced at $5 for calls and $5.55 for puts where both options have a 2 year maturity and an exercise price of $24.
You suspect that the call option contract is mis-priced and would like to conduct a risk-free arbitrage that requires zero capital. Which of the following steps about arbitraging the situation is NOT correct?
Which type of business organisation has the most checks and balances against the detrimental effects of the principal-agent problem since it's potentially the most exposed?
Question 992 inflation, real and nominal returns and cash flows
You currently have $100 in the bank which pays a 10% pa interest rate.
Oranges currently cost $1 each at the shop and inflation is 5% pa which is the expected growth rate in the orange price.
This information is summarised in the table below, with some parts missing that correspond to the answer options. All rates are given as effective annual rates. Note that when payments are not specified as real, as in this question, they're conventionally assumed to be nominal.
Wealth in Dollars and Oranges | ||||
Time (year) | Bank account wealth ($) | Orange price ($) | Wealth in oranges | |
0 | 100 | 1 | 100 | |
1 | 110 | 1.05 | (a) | |
2 | (b) | (c) | (d) | |
Which of the following statements is NOT correct? Your: