Fight Finance

Question 65  annuity with growth, needs refinement

Which of the below formulas gives the present value of an annuity with growth?

(a) ##\dfrac{C_1}{r-g}\left(1-\dfrac{1}{(1+r)^T}\right)##

(b) ##\dfrac{C_1(1+g)^T}{r-g}\left(1-\dfrac{1}{(1+r)^T}\right)##

(c) ##\dfrac{C_1}{r-g}\left(1-\dfrac{1+g}{(1+r)^T}\right)##

(d) ##\dfrac{C_1}{r-g}\left(1-\left(\dfrac{1+g}{1+r}\right)^T \right)##

(e) ##\dfrac{C_1(1+g)}{r-g}\left(1-\dfrac{1}{(1+r)^T}\right)##

Hint: The equation of a perpetuity without growth is: ###V_\text{0, perp without growth} = \frac{C_\text{1}}{r}###

The formula for the present value of an annuity without growth is derived from the formula for a perpetuity without growth.

The idea is than an annuity with T payments from t=1 to T inclusive is equivalent to a perpetuity starting at t=1 with fixed positive cash flows, plus a perpetuity starting T periods later (t=T+1) with fixed negative cash flows. The positive and negative cash flows after time period T cancel each other out, leaving the positive cash flows between t=1 to T, which is the annuity.

###\begin{aligned} V_\text{0, annuity} &= V_\text{0, perp without growth from t=1} - V_\text{0, perp without growth from t=T+1} \\ &= \dfrac{C_\text{1}}{r} - \dfrac{ \left( \dfrac{C_\text{T+1}}{r} \right) }{(1+r)^T} \\ &= \dfrac{C_\text{1}}{r} - \dfrac{ \left( \dfrac{C_\text{1}}{r} \right) }{(1+r)^T} \\ &= \dfrac{C_\text{1}}{r}\left(1 - \dfrac{1}{(1+r)^T}\right) \\ \end{aligned}###

The equation of a perpetuity with growth is:

###V_\text{0, perp with growth} = \dfrac{C_\text{1}}{r-g}###

Question 89  WACC, CFFA, interest tax shield

A retail furniture company buys furniture wholesale and distributes it through its retail stores. The owner believes that she has some good ideas for making stylish new furniture. She is considering a project to buy a factory and employ workers to manufacture the new furniture she's designed. Furniture manufacturing has more systematic risk than furniture retailing.

Her furniture retailing firm's after-tax WACC is 20%. Furniture manufacturing firms have an after-tax WACC of 30%. Both firms are optimally geared. Assume a classical tax system.

Which method(s) will give the correct valuation of the new furniture-making project? Select the most correct answer.

(a) Discount the project's unlevered CFFA by the furniture manufacturing firms' 30% WACC after tax.

(b) Discount the project's unlevered CFFA by the company's 20% WACC after tax.

(c) Discount the project's levered CFFA by the company's 20% WACC after tax.

(d) Discount the project's levered CFFA by the furniture manufacturing firms' 30% WACC after tax.

(e) The methods outlined in answers (a) and (c) will give the same valuations, both are correct.

Question 149  fully amortising loan, APR

You want to buy an apartment priced at $500,000. You have saved a deposit of $50,000. The bank has agreed to lend you the $450,000 as a fully amortising loan with a term of 30 years. The interest rate is 6% pa and is not expected to change. What will be your monthly payments?

(a) $32,692.01

(b) $2,697.98

(c) $2,652.17

(d) $2,250.00

(e) $1,250.00

Question 179  bond pricing, capital raising

A firm wishes to raise $20 million now. They will issue 8% pa semi-annual coupon bonds that will mature in 5 years and have a face value of $100 each. Bond yields are 6% pa, given as an APR compounding every 6 months, and the yield curve is flat.

How many bonds should the firm issue?

(a) 140,202

(b) 184,280

(c) 184,460

(d) 186,881

(e) 200,000

Question 366  opportunity cost, NPV, CFFA

Your friend is trying to find the net present value of an investment which:

• Costs $1 million initially (t=0); and
• Pays a single positive cash flow of $1.1 million in one year (t=1).

The investment has a total required return of 10% pa due to its moderate level of undiversifiable risk.

Your friend is aware of the importance of opportunity costs and the time value of money, but he is unsure of how to find the NPV of the project.

He knows that the opportunity cost of investing the $1m in the project is the expected gain from investing the money in shares instead. Like the project, shares also have an expected return of 10% since they have moderate undiversifiable risk. This opportunity cost is $0.1m ##(=1m \times 10\%)## which occurs in one year (t=1).

He knows that the time value of money should be accounted for, and this can be done by finding the present value of the cash flows in one year.

Your friend has listed a few different ways to find the NPV which are written down below.

Method 1: ##-1m + \dfrac{1.1m}{(1+0.1)^1} ##

Method 2: ##-1m + 1.1m - 1m \times 0.1 ##

Method 3: ##-1m + \dfrac{1.1m}{(1+0.1)^1} - 1m \times 0.1 ##

Which of the above calculations give the correct NPV? Select the most correct answer.

(a) Method 1 only.

(b) Method 2 only.

(c) Method 3 only.

(d) Methods 1 and 2 only.

(e) Methods 1 and 3 only.

Question 618  capital structure, no explanation

Who owns a company's shares? The:

(a) Company.

(b) Debt holders.

(c) Equity holders.

(d) Chief Executive Officer (CEO).

(e) Board of directors.

Question 718  arithmetic and geometric averages

The symbol ##\text{GDR}_{0\rightarrow 1}## represents a stock's gross discrete return per annum over the first year. ##\text{GDR}_{0\rightarrow 1} = P_1/P_0##. The subscript indicates the time period that the return is mentioned over. So for example, ##\text{AAGDR}_{1 \rightarrow 3}## is the arithmetic average GDR measured over the two year period from years 1 to 3, but it is expressed as a per annum rate.

Which of the below statements about the arithmetic and geometric average GDR is NOT correct?

(a) Arithmetic average gross discrete return is ##\text{AAGDR}_{0\rightarrow T} = \dfrac{\text{GDR}_{0 \rightarrow 1}+\text{GDR}_{1\rightarrow 2}+...+\text{GDR}_{T-1 \rightarrow T}}{T}##

(b) Geometric average gross discrete return is ##\text{GAGDR}_{0\rightarrow T} = \dfrac{\text{GDR}_{0 \rightarrow 1} . \text{GDR}_{1\rightarrow 2} ... \text{GDR}_{T-1 \rightarrow T}}{T}##

(c) The geometric average gross discrete return can be quickly found using the first ##(P_0)## and last ##(P_T)## prices. ##\text{GAGDR}_{0\rightarrow T} = \left( \dfrac{P_T}{P_0} \right)^{1/T}##

(d) The arithmetic average is always bigger than or equal to the geometric average, ##\text{AAGDR} \ge \text{GAGDR}##.

(e) The arithmetic and geometric averages of returns will be equal if the variance of the stock's returns is zero.

Question 801  negative gearing, leverage, capital structure

The following steps outline the process of ‘negative gearing’ an investment property in Australia. Which of these steps or statements is NOT correct? To successfully achieve negative gearing on an investment property:

(a) Buy an investment property with low expected future capital gains and high rental income, funded using a low proportion of debt (mortgage loan).

(b) Rent the investment property to a tenant;

(c) Negative gearing is achieved when the property investment’s annual taxable profit is negative, due to the loan’s interest expense being greater than the net rent (rental revenue less the renting expenses such as maintenance);

(d) Deduct the property’s income loss from the investor’s separate personal wage from labour. This means that the investor will pay less personal income tax than if they didn’t make the levered property investment;

(e) The investment property will be a positive-NPV investment if the capital gains are greater than the income losses on an after-tax, risk-adjusted, present-value basis.

Question 829  option, future, delta, gamma, theta, no explanation

Below are some statements about futures and European-style options on non-dividend paying stocks. Assume that the risk free rate is always positive. Which of these statements is NOT correct? All other things remaining equal:

(a) As time elapses, call option prices always fall.

(b) As time elapses, put option prices always fall.

(c) The long future always has a zero Gamma.

(d) The more in-the-money the long call option is, the higher (more positive) is its Delta.

(e) The more in-the-money the long put option is, the lower (more negative) is its Delta.

Question 947  arbitrage table, option, no explanation

A non-dividend paying stock has a current price of $20.

The risk free rate is 5% pa given as a continuously compounded rate.

Options on the stock are currently priced at $5 for calls and $5.55 for puts where both options have a 2 year maturity and an exercise price of $24.

You suspect that the call option contract is mis-priced and would like to conduct a risk-free arbitrage that requires zero capital. Which of the following steps about arbitraging the situation is NOT correct?

(a) The call option is over-priced and should be sold.

(b) One put option should be sold.

(c) One stock should be bought.

(d) A 2 year zero coupon bond with a face value at maturity of $24 should be sold.

(e) The gain now will be $1.1661 per option contract with zero cash flows in the future.