Fight Finance

Question 53  bond pricing

A two year Government bond has a face value of $100, a yield of 2.5% pa and a fixed coupon rate of 0.5% pa, paid semi-annually. What is its price?

(a) 90.6421

(b) 95.1524

(c) 95.2055

(d) 96.1219

(e) 103.9751

Question 65  annuity with growth, needs refinement

Which of the below formulas gives the present value of an annuity with growth?

(a) ##\dfrac{C_1}{r-g}\left(1-\dfrac{1}{(1+r)^T}\right)##

(b) ##\dfrac{C_1(1+g)^T}{r-g}\left(1-\dfrac{1}{(1+r)^T}\right)##

(c) ##\dfrac{C_1}{r-g}\left(1-\dfrac{1+g}{(1+r)^T}\right)##

(d) ##\dfrac{C_1}{r-g}\left(1-\left(\dfrac{1+g}{1+r}\right)^T \right)##

(e) ##\dfrac{C_1(1+g)}{r-g}\left(1-\dfrac{1}{(1+r)^T}\right)##

Hint: The equation of a perpetuity without growth is: ###V_\text{0, perp without growth} = \frac{C_\text{1}}{r}###

The formula for the present value of an annuity without growth is derived from the formula for a perpetuity without growth.

The idea is than an annuity with T payments from t=1 to T inclusive is equivalent to a perpetuity starting at t=1 with fixed positive cash flows, plus a perpetuity starting T periods later (t=T+1) with fixed negative cash flows. The positive and negative cash flows after time period T cancel each other out, leaving the positive cash flows between t=1 to T, which is the annuity.

###\begin{aligned} V_\text{0, annuity} &= V_\text{0, perp without growth from t=1} - V_\text{0, perp without growth from t=T+1} \\ &= \dfrac{C_\text{1}}{r} - \dfrac{ \left( \dfrac{C_\text{T+1}}{r} \right) }{(1+r)^T} \\ &= \dfrac{C_\text{1}}{r} - \dfrac{ \left( \dfrac{C_\text{1}}{r} \right) }{(1+r)^T} \\ &= \dfrac{C_\text{1}}{r}\left(1 - \dfrac{1}{(1+r)^T}\right) \\ \end{aligned}###

The equation of a perpetuity with growth is:

###V_\text{0, perp with growth} = \dfrac{C_\text{1}}{r-g}###

Question 99  capital structure, interest tax shield, Miller and Modigliani, trade off theory of capital structure

A firm changes its capital structure by issuing a large amount of debt and using the funds to repurchase shares. Its assets are unchanged.

Assume that:

• The firm and individual investors can borrow at the same rate and have the same tax rates.
• The firm's debt and shares are fairly priced and the shares are repurchased at the market price, not at a premium.
• There are no market frictions relating to debt such as asymmetric information or transaction costs.
• Shareholders wealth is measured in terms of utiliity. Shareholders are wealth-maximising and risk-averse. They have a preferred level of overall leverage. Before the firm's capital restructure all shareholders were optimally levered.

According to Miller and Modigliani's theory, which statement is correct?

(a) The firm's share price and shareholder wealth will both decrease. This is because the firm will have more debt and therefore more risk so the discount rate applied to its cash flows will be higher, decreasing the value of the firm and therefore the value of the firm's equity and share price.

(b) The firm's share price and shareholder wealth will both increase. This is because the firm will have more debt which will amplify the returns of equity investors. This will mean that returns on equity can be much higher and investors will pay a premium for this, leading to an increase in the stock price.

(c) The firm's share price and shareholder wealth will both increase since it has more debt and therefore more tax shields.

(d) The firm's share price will increase due to the higher value of tax shields. But shareholder wealth will remain unchanged because capital structure is irrelevant when investors can use home-made leverage to create tax-shields themselves.

(e) The firm's share price and shareholder wealth will both increase. This is because the cost of debt is cheaper than equity, leading to a lower (before and after tax) WACC. This lower WACC will lead to a higher value of the firm and a higher share price.

Question 386  Merton model of corporate debt, real option, option

A risky firm will last for one period only (t=0 to 1), then it will be liquidated. So it's assets will be sold and the debt holders and equity holders will be paid out in that order. The firm has the following quantities:

##V## = Market value of assets.

##E## = Market value of (levered) equity.

##D## = Market value of zero coupon bonds.

##F_1## = Total face value of zero coupon bonds which is promised to be paid in one year.

The risky corporate debt graph above contains bold labels a to e. Which of the following statements about those labels is NOT correct?

(a) Label a represents the market value of equity ##(E)## at t=0 on the red curved line or t=1 on the blue crooked line.

(b) Label b represents the face value of debt at maturity ##(F_1)##.

(c) Label c represents the market value of debt now ##(D_0)##.

(d) Label d represents the face value of debt at maturity ##(F_1)##.

(e) Label e represents the market value of assets ##(V)## at t=0 on the red curved line or t=1 on the blue crooked line.

Question 464  mispriced asset, NPV, DDM, market efficiency

A company advertises an investment costing $1,000 which they say is underpriced. They say that it has an expected total return of 15% pa, but a required return of only 10% pa. Assume that there are no dividend payments so the entire 15% total return is all capital return.

Assuming that the company's statements are correct, what is the NPV of buying the investment if the 15% return lasts for the next 100 years (t=0 to 100), then reverts to 10% pa after that time? Also, what is the NPV of the investment if the 15% return lasts forever?

In both cases, assume that the required return of 10% remains constant. All returns are given as effective annual rates.

The answer choices below are given in the same order (15% for 100 years, and 15% forever):

(a)             $0,          $0

(b) $1,977.19,   $2,000

(c) $2,977.19,   $3,000

(d)    $499.96,      $500

(e) $84,214.9,   Infinite

Question 481  Annuity

This annuity formula ##\dfrac{C_1}{r}\left(1-\dfrac{1}{(1+r)^3} \right)## is equivalent to which of the following formulas? Note the 3.

In the below formulas, ##C_t## is a cash flow at time t. All of the cash flows are equal, but paid at different times.

(a) ##C_0+C_1+C_2+C_3##

(b) ##\dfrac{C_0+C_1+C_2+C_3}{(1+r)^3} ##

(c) ##C_0+\dfrac{C_1}{(1+r)^1} +\dfrac{C_2}{(1+r)^2} + \dfrac{C_3}{(1+r)^3} ##

(d) ##\dfrac{C_1}{(1+r)^1} +\dfrac{C_2}{(1+r)^2} + \dfrac{C_3}{(1+r)^3} ##

(e) ##\dfrac{C_1}{(1+r)^1} + \dfrac{C_2}{(1+r)^2} ##

Question 554  inflation, real and nominal returns and cash flows

On his 20th birthday, a man makes a resolution. He will put $30 cash under his bed at the end of every month starting from today. His birthday today is the first day of the month. So the first addition to his cash stash will be in one month. He will write in his will that when he dies the cash under the bed should be given to charity.

If the man lives for another 60 years, how much money will be under his bed if he dies just after making his last (720th) addition?

Also, what will be the real value of that cash in today's prices if inflation is expected to 2.5% pa? Assume that the inflation rate is an effective annual rate and is not expected to change.

The answers are given in the same order, the amount of money under his bed in 60 years, and the real value of that money in today's prices.

(a) $21,600,     $95,035.46

(b) $21,600,     $49,515.44

(c) $21,600,     $4,909.33

(d) $21,600,     $2,557.86

(e) $11,254.05,     $2,557.86

Question 627  CAPM, SML, NPV, Jensens alpha

Assets A, B, M and ##r_f## are shown on the graphs above. Asset M is the market portfolio and ##r_f## is the risk free yield on government bonds. Which of the below statements is NOT correct?

(a) Asset A has a Jensen's alpha of 4.5% pa.

(b) Asset A is under-priced.

(c) The NPV of buying asset A is zero.

(d) Asset B has a Jensen's alpha of zero.

(e) Asset B is fairly priced.

Question 669  beta, CAPM, risk

Which of the following is NOT a valid method for estimating the beta of a company's stock? Assume that markets are efficient, a long history of past data is available, the stock possesses idiosyncratic and market risk. The variances and standard deviations below denote total risks.

(a) ##Β_E=\dfrac{cov(r_E,r_M )}{var(r_M)}##

(b) ##Β_E=\dfrac{correl(r_E,r_M ).sd(r_E)}{sd(r_M)} ##

(c) ##Β_E=\dfrac{sd(r_E)}{sd(r_M)}##,   since ##var(r_E)=β_E^2.var(r_M)##

(d) ##Β_E=\dfrac{r_E-r_f}{r_M-r_f }##,   since ##r_E=r_f+Β_E. (r_M-r_f )##

(e) ##Β_E= \left(B_V - \dfrac{D}{V}.Β_D \right).\dfrac{V}{E}##,   since ##B_V=\dfrac{E}{V}.Β_E+\dfrac{D}{V}.Β_D ##

Question 969  foreign exchange rate, no explanation

RBA analyst Adam Hamilton wrote in the December 2018 Bulletin article ‘Understanding Exchange Rates and Why They Are Important’ the following passage about bilateral exchange rates:

A bilateral exchange rate refers to the value of one currency relative to another. It is the most commonly referenced type of exchange rate. Most bilateral exchange rates are quoted against the US dollar (USD), as it is the most traded currency globally. Looking at the Australian dollar (AUD), the AUD/USD exchange rate gives you the amount of US dollars that you will receive for each Australian dollar that you convert (or sell). For example, an AUD/USD exchange rate of 0.75 means that you will get US75 cents for every 1 AUD.

An appreciation of the Australian dollar is an increase in its value compared with a foreign currency. This means that each Australian dollar buys you more foreign currency than before. Equivalently, if you are buying an item that is priced in foreign currency it will now cost you less in Australian dollars than before. If there is a depreciation of the Australian dollar, the opposite is true.

Based on this information, which of the following statements is NOT correct?

(a) 'US75 cents for every 1 AUD’ is an American terms quote of the AUD.

(b) 'US75 cents for every 1 AUD’ is equivalent to 0.75AUD per USD.

(c) The AUD would have appreciated against the USD if the quote moved from US75 to US80 cents for every 1 AUD.

(d) Importers of US goods into Australia would pay less in AUD and be happy if the exchange rate moved from US75 to US80 cents for every 1 AUD, all other things remaining equal.

(e) Exporters of Australian goods into the USA would receive less in AUD and be unhappy if the exchange rate moved from US75 to US80 cents for every 1 AUD, all other things remaining equal.