Fight Finance

Question 48  IRR, NPV, bond pricing, premium par and discount bonds, market efficiency

The theory of fixed interest bond pricing is an application of the theory of Net Present Value (NPV). Also, a 'fairly priced' asset is not over- or under-priced. Buying or selling a fairly priced asset has an NPV of zero.

Considering this, which of the following statements is NOT correct?

(a) The internal rate of return (IRR) of buying a fairly priced bond is equal to the bond's yield.

(b) The Present Value of a fairly priced bond's coupons and face value is equal to its price.

(c) If a fairly priced bond's required return rises, its price will fall.

(d) Fairly priced premium bonds' yields are less than their coupon rates, prices are more than their face values, and the NPV of buying them is therefore positive.

(e) The NPV of buying a fairly priced bond is zero.

Question 65  annuity with growth, needs refinement

Which of the below formulas gives the present value of an annuity with growth?

(a) ##\dfrac{C_1}{r-g}\left(1-\dfrac{1}{(1+r)^T}\right)##

(b) ##\dfrac{C_1(1+g)^T}{r-g}\left(1-\dfrac{1}{(1+r)^T}\right)##

(c) ##\dfrac{C_1}{r-g}\left(1-\dfrac{1+g}{(1+r)^T}\right)##

(d) ##\dfrac{C_1}{r-g}\left(1-\left(\dfrac{1+g}{1+r}\right)^T \right)##

(e) ##\dfrac{C_1(1+g)}{r-g}\left(1-\dfrac{1}{(1+r)^T}\right)##

Hint: The equation of a perpetuity without growth is: ###V_\text{0, perp without growth} = \frac{C_\text{1}}{r}###

The formula for the present value of an annuity without growth is derived from the formula for a perpetuity without growth.

The idea is than an annuity with T payments from t=1 to T inclusive is equivalent to a perpetuity starting at t=1 with fixed positive cash flows, plus a perpetuity starting T periods later (t=T+1) with fixed negative cash flows. The positive and negative cash flows after time period T cancel each other out, leaving the positive cash flows between t=1 to T, which is the annuity.

###\begin{aligned} V_\text{0, annuity} &= V_\text{0, perp without growth from t=1} - V_\text{0, perp without growth from t=T+1} \\ &= \dfrac{C_\text{1}}{r} - \dfrac{ \left( \dfrac{C_\text{T+1}}{r} \right) }{(1+r)^T} \\ &= \dfrac{C_\text{1}}{r} - \dfrac{ \left( \dfrac{C_\text{1}}{r} \right) }{(1+r)^T} \\ &= \dfrac{C_\text{1}}{r}\left(1 - \dfrac{1}{(1+r)^T}\right) \\ \end{aligned}###

The equation of a perpetuity with growth is:

###V_\text{0, perp with growth} = \dfrac{C_\text{1}}{r-g}###

Question 277  derivative terminology, future

The 'initial margin', also known as the performance bond in a futures contract, is paid at the start when the futures contract is agreed to. or ?

Question 368  interest tax shield, CFFA

A method commonly seen in textbooks for calculating a levered firm's free cash flow (FFCF, or CFFA) is the following:

###\begin{aligned} FFCF &= (Rev - COGS - Depr - FC - IntExp)(1-t_c) + \\ &\space\space\space+ Depr - CapEx -\Delta NWC + IntExp(1-t_c) \\ \end{aligned}###

Does this annual FFCF or the annual interest tax shield?

Question 495  risk, accounting ratio, no explanation

High risk firms in danger of bankruptcy tend to have:

(a) Low debt to assets ratios.

(b) Low quick ratios.

(c) High interest coverage ratios.

(d) Positive amounts of net working capital.

(e) High net profit margins.

Question 547  PE ratio, Multiples valuation, DDM, income and capital returns, no explanation

A firm pays out all of its earnings as dividends. Because of this, the firm has no real growth in earnings, dividends or stock price since there is no re-investment back into the firm to buy new assets and make higher earnings. The dividend discount model is suitable to value this company.

The firm's revenues and costs are expected to increase by inflation in the foreseeable future. The firm has no debt. It operates in the services industry and has few physical assets so there is negligible depreciation expense and negligible net working capital required.

Which of the following statements about this firm's PE ratio is NOT correct? The PE ratio should:

(a) Equal the inverse of the firm's nominal income return.

(b) Equal the inverse of the firm's real total return.

(c) Equal the inverse of the firm's real capital return.

(d) Equal the expected payback period of an investor who intends to buy the firm's equity at the current price.

(e) Be lower than that of faster growing firms that pay lower dividends and re-invest in themselves.

Note: The inverse of x is 1/x.

Question 623  market efficiency

The efficient markets hypothesis (EMH) and no-arbitrage pricing theory are most closely related to which of the following concepts?

(a) Competition.

(b) Opportunity costs.

(c) Separation of the investment and financing decisions.

(d) Diversification.

(e) The stand-alone principle, incremental cash flows and sunk costs.

Question 643  future, no explanation

A trader buys one crude oil futures contract on the CME expiring in one year with a locked-in futures price of $38.94 per barrel. If the trader doesn’t close out her contract before expiry then in one year she will have the:

(a) Obligation to buy the underlying oil at $38.94 per barrel.

(b) Obligation to sell the underlying oil at $38.94 per barrel.

(c) Right to buy the underlying oil at $38.94 per barrel if she wants.

(d) Right to sell the underlying oil at $38.94 per barrel if she wants.

(e) Obligation to buy the underlying oil $38.94 per barrel if her counter party chooses to sell it.

Question 665  stock split

A company conducts a 10 for 3 stock split. What is the percentage increase in the stock price and the number of shares outstanding? The answers are given in the same order.

(a) -76.92%,   333.33%

(b) -70%,   333.33%

(c) -70%, 233.33%

(d) -57.14%,   233.33%

(e) 233.33%,   -70%

Question 796  option, Black-Scholes-Merton option pricing, option delta, no explanation

Which of the following quantities from the Black-Scholes-Merton option pricing formula gives the risk-neutral probability that a European call option will be exercised?

(a) ##N[d_1]##

(b) ##N[d_2]##

(c) ##−N[−d_1]##

(d) ##−N[−d_2]##

(e) ##N[−d_2]##