Fight Finance

Question 857  DuPont formula, accounting ratio

The DuPont formula is:

###\dfrac{\text{Net Profit}}{\text{Sales}} \times \dfrac{\text{Sales}}{\text{Total Assets}} \times \dfrac{\text{Total Assets}}{\text{Owners' Equity}}###

Which of the following statements about the DuPont formula is NOT correct?

(a) The DuPont formula gives the book Return on Equity (ROE).

(b) The net profit to sales ratio is called the ‘gross profit margin’.

(c) The sales to total assets ratio is called the ‘total asset turnover’ ratio.

(d) The total assets to owners' equity ratio is called the ‘equity multiplier’.

(e) The equity multiplier and ROE will rise if the firm uses more leverage by replacing equity with debt.

Question 358  PE ratio, Multiples valuation

Estimate the Chinese bank ICBC's share price using a backward-looking price earnings (PE) multiples approach with the following assumptions and figures only. Note that the renminbi (RMB) is the Chinese currency, also known as the yuan (CNY).

• The 4 major Chinese banks ICBC, China Construction Bank (CCB), Bank of China (BOC) and Agricultural Bank of China (ABC) are comparable companies;
• ICBC 's historical earnings per share (EPS) is RMB 0.74;
• CCB's backward-looking PE ratio is 4.59;
• BOC 's backward-looking PE ratio is 4.78;
• ABC's backward-looking PE ratio is also 4.78;

Note: Figures sourced from Google Finance on 25 March 2014. Share prices are from the Shanghai stock exchange.

(a) RMB 6.4595

(b) RMB 6.3739

(c) RMB 6.3311

(d) RMB 3.4903

(e) RMB 3.3966

Question 348  PE ratio, Multiples valuation

Estimate the US bank JP Morgan's share price using a price earnings (PE) multiples approach with the following assumptions and figures only:

• The major US banks JP Morgan Chase (JPM), Citi Group (C) and Wells Fargo (WFC) are comparable companies;
• JP Morgan Chase's historical earnings per share (EPS) is $4.37;
• Citi Group's share price is $50.05 and historical EPS is $4.26;
• Wells Fargo's share price is $48.98 and historical EPS is $3.89.

Note: Figures sourced from Google Finance on 24 March 2014.

(a) $53.2353

(b) $53.1831

(c) $53.0995

(d) $26.5498

(e) $2.7849

Question 750  PE ratio, Multiples valuation

Itau Unibanco is a major listed bank in Brazil with a market capitalisation of equity equal to BRL 85.744 billion, EPS of BRL 3.96 and 2.97 billion shares on issue.

Banco Bradesco is another major bank with total earnings of BRL 8.77 billion and 2.52 billion shares on issue.

Estimate Banco Bradesco's current share price using a price-earnings multiples approach assuming that Itau Unibanco is a comparable firm.

Note that BRL is the Brazilian Real, their currency. Figures sourced from Google Finance on the market close of the BVMF on 24 July 2015.

(a) BRL 28.87

(b) BRL 25.372

(c) BRL 22.1

(d) BRL 21.653

(e) BRL 21.528

Question 347  PE ratio, Multiples valuation

Which of the following investable assets are NOT suitable for valuation using PE multiples techniques?

(a) Common equity in small private companies.

(b) Common equity in large private companies.

(c) Common equity in listed public companies.

(d) Fixed term bonds of listed public companies.

(e) Real estate.

Question 749  Multiples valuation, PE ratio, price to revenue ratio, price to book ratio, NPV

A real estate agent says that the price of a house in Sydney Australia is approximately equal to the gross weekly rent times 1000.

What type of valuation method is the real estate agent using?

(a) Price to EBITDA multiple.

(b) Price to book multiple.

(c) Price to earnings multiple.

(d) Price to revenue multiple.

(e) Discounted cash flow (DCF).

Question 463  PE ratio, Multiples valuation

Private equity firms are known to buy medium sized private companies operating in the same industry, merge them together into a larger company, and then sell it off in a public float (initial public offering, IPO).

If medium-sized private companies trade at PE ratios of 5 and larger listed companies trade at PE ratios of 15, what return can be achieved from this strategy?

Assume that:

• The medium-sized companies can be bought, merged and sold in an IPO instantaneously.
• There are no costs of finding, valuing, merging and restructuring the medium sized companies. Also, there is no competition to buy the medium-sized companies from other private equity firms.
• The large merged firm's earnings are the sum of the medium firms' earnings.
• The only reason for the difference in medium and large firm's PE ratios is due to the illiquidity of the medium firms' shares.
• Return is defined as: ##r_{0→1} = (p_1-p_0+c_1)/p_0## , where time zero is just before the merger and time one is just after.

(a) 300%.

(b) 200%

(c) 33.33%

(d) 30%

(e) 20%

Question 868  cash cycle

What is the Cash Conversion Cycle for a firm with a:

• Payables period of 1 day;
• Inventory period of 50 days; and
• Receivables period of 30 days?

All answer options are in days:

(a) 19

(b) 21

(c) 79

(d) 80

(e) 81

Question 67  CFFA, interest tax shield

Here are the Net Income (NI) and Cash Flow From Assets (CFFA) equations:

###NI=(Rev-COGS-FC-Depr-IntExp).(1-t_c)###

###CFFA=NI+Depr-CapEx - \varDelta NWC+IntExp###

What is the formula for calculating annual interest expense (IntExp) which is used in the equations above?

Select one of the following answers. Note that D is the value of debt which is constant through time, and ##r_D## is the cost of debt.

(a) ##D(1+r_D)##

(b) ##D/(1+r_D) ##

(c) ##D.r_D ##

(d) ##D / r_D##

(e) ##NI.r_D##

Question 77  interest tax shield

The equations for Net Income (NI, also known as Earnings or Net Profit After Tax) and Cash Flow From Assets (CFFA, also known as Free Cash Flow to the Firm) per year are:

###NI=(Rev-COGS-FC-Depr-IntExp).(1-t_c)###

###CFFA=NI+Depr-CapEx - \varDelta NWC+IntExp###

For a firm with debt, what is the amount of the interest tax shield per year?

(a) ##IntExp.t_c##

(b) ##IntExp/t_c##

(c) ##IntExp.(1-t_c)##

(d) ##IntExp/(1-t_c)##

(e) ##IntExp.(t_c-1)##

Question 206  CFFA, interest expense, interest tax shield

Interest expense (IntExp) is an important part of a company's income statement (or 'profit and loss' or 'statement of financial performance').

How does an accountant calculate the annual interest expense of a fixed-coupon bond that has a liquid secondary market? Select the most correct answer:

Annual interest expense is equal to:

(a) the bond's face value multiplied by its annual yield to maturity.

(b) the bond's face value multiplied by its annual coupon rate.

(c) the bond's market price at the start of the year multiplied by its annual yield to maturity.

(d) the bond's market price at the start of the year multiplied by its annual coupon rate.

(e) the future value of the actual cash payments of the bond over the year, grown to the end of the year, and grown by the bond's yield to maturity.

Question 941  negative gearing, leverage, capital structure, interest tax shield, real estate

Last year, two friends Lev and Nolev each bought similar investment properties for $1 million. Both earned net rents of $30,000 pa over the past year. They funded their purchases in different ways:

• Lev used $200,000 of his own money and borrowed $800,000 from the bank in the form of an interest-only loan with an interest rate of 5% pa.
• Nolev used $1,000,000 of his own money, he has no mortgage loan on his property.

Both Lev and Nolev also work in high-paying jobs and are subject personal marginal tax rates of 45%.

Which of the below statements about the past year is NOT correct?

(a) Lev’s annual interest expense would have been $40,000.

(b) Lev’s annual loss before tax on the investment property was $10,000

(c) Lev’s annual loss after tax on the investment property was $5,500

(d) Lev’s personal tax saving due to the investment property was $5,500.

(e) Nolev’s personal tax payable due to the investment property was $13,500.

Question 959  negative gearing, leverage, capital structure, interest tax shield, real estate

Last year, two friends Gear and Nogear invested in residential apartments. Each invested $1 million of their own money (their net wealth).

Apartments cost $1,000,000 last year and they earned net rents of $30,000 pa over the last year. Net rents are calculated as rent revenues less the costs of renting such as property maintenance, land tax and council rates. However, interest expense and personal income taxes are not deducted from net rents.

Gear and Nogear funded their purchases in different ways:

• Gear used $1,000,000 of her own money and borrowed $4,000,000 from the bank in the form of an interest-only loan with an interest rate of 5% pa to buy 5 apartments.
• Nogear used $1,000,000 of his own money to buy one apartment. He has no mortgage loan on his property.

Both Gear and Nogear also work in high-paying jobs and are subject personal marginal tax rates of 45%.

Which of the below statements about the past year is NOT correct?

(a) Gear’s total annual interest expense would have been $200,000.

(b) Gear’s total annual loss before tax on the investment properties was $50,000

(c) Gear’s total annual loss after tax on the investment properties was $27,500

(d) Gear’s total personal tax saving due to the investment properties was $22,500.

(e) Nogear’s total personal tax payable due to the investment property was $16,500.

Question 375  interest tax shield, CFFA

One formula for calculating a levered firm's free cash flow (FFCF, or CFFA) is to use net operating profit after tax (NOPAT).

###\begin{aligned} FFCF &= NOPAT + Depr - CapEx -\Delta NWC \\ &= (Rev - COGS - Depr - FC)(1-t_c) + Depr - CapEx -\Delta NWC \\ \end{aligned} \\###

Does this annual FFCF or the annual interest tax shield?

Question 371  interest tax shield, CFFA

One method for calculating a firm's free cash flow (FFCF, or CFFA) is to ignore interest expense. That is, pretend that interest expense ##(IntExp)## is zero:

###\begin{aligned} FFCF &= (Rev - COGS - Depr - FC - IntExp)(1-t_c) + Depr - CapEx -\Delta NWC + IntExp \\ &= (Rev - COGS - Depr - FC - 0)(1-t_c) + Depr - CapEx -\Delta NWC - 0\\ \end{aligned}###

Does this annual FFCF with zero interest expense or the annual interest tax shield?

Question 367  CFFA, interest tax shield

There are many ways to calculate a firm's free cash flow (FFCF), also called cash flow from assets (CFFA). Some include the annual interest tax shield in the cash flow and some do not.

Which of the below FFCF formulas include the interest tax shield in the cash flow?

###(1) \quad FFCF=NI + Depr - CapEx -ΔNWC + IntExp### ###(2) \quad FFCF=NI + Depr - CapEx -ΔNWC + IntExp.(1-t_c)### ###(3) \quad FFCF=EBIT.(1-t_c )+ Depr- CapEx -ΔNWC+IntExp.t_c### ###(4) \quad FFCF=EBIT.(1-t_c) + Depr- CapEx -ΔNWC### ###(5) \quad FFCF=EBITDA.(1-t_c )+Depr.t_c- CapEx -ΔNWC+IntExp.t_c### ###(6) \quad FFCF=EBITDA.(1-t_c )+Depr.t_c- CapEx -ΔNWC### ###(7) \quad FFCF=EBIT-Tax + Depr - CapEx -ΔNWC### ###(8) \quad FFCF=EBIT-Tax + Depr - CapEx -ΔNWC-IntExp.t_c### ###(9) \quad FFCF=EBITDA-Tax - CapEx -ΔNWC### ###(10) \quad FFCF=EBITDA-Tax - CapEx -ΔNWC-IntExp.t_c###

The formulas for net income (NI also called earnings), EBIT and EBITDA are given below. Assume that depreciation and amortisation are both represented by 'Depr' and that 'FC' represents fixed costs such as rent.

###NI=(Rev - COGS - Depr - FC - IntExp).(1-t_c )### ###EBIT=Rev - COGS - FC-Depr### ###EBITDA=Rev - COGS - FC### ###Tax =(Rev - COGS - Depr - FC - IntExp).t_c= \dfrac{NI.t_c}{1-t_c}###

(a) 1, 3, 5, 7, 9.

(b) 2, 4, 6, 8, 10.

(c) 1, 4, 6, 8, 10.

(d) 2, 3, 5, 7, 9.

(e) 1, 3, 5, 8, 10.

Question 88  WACC, CAPM

A firm can issue 3 year annual coupon bonds at a yield of 10% pa and a coupon rate of 8% pa.

The beta of its levered equity is 2. The market's expected return is 10% pa and 3 year government bonds yield 6% pa with a coupon rate of 4% pa.

The market value of equity is $1 million and the market value of debt is $1 million. The corporate tax rate is 30%.

What is the firm's after-tax WACC? Assume a classical tax system.

(a) 8.40%

(b) 10.50%

(c) 10.80%

(d) 12.00%

(e) 21.00%

Question 237  WACC, Miller and Modigliani, interest tax shield

Which of the following discount rates should be the highest for a levered company? Ignore the costs of financial distress.

(a) Cost of debt (##r_\text{D}##).

(b) Unlevered cost of equity (##r_\text{E, U}##).

(c) Levered cost of equity (##r_\text{E, L}##).

(d) Levered before-tax WACC (##r_\text{V, LxITS}##).

(e) Levered after-tax WACC (##r_\text{V, LwITS}##).

Question 84  WACC, capital structure, capital budgeting

A firm is considering a new project of similar risk to the current risk of the firm. This project will expand its existing business. The cash flows of the project have been calculated assuming that there is no interest expense. In other words, the cash flows assume that the project is all-equity financed.

In fact the firm has a target debt-to-equity ratio of 1, so the project will be financed with 50% debt and 50% equity. To find the levered value of the firm's assets, what discount rate should be applied to the project's unlevered cash flows? Assume a classical tax system.

(a) The required return on equity, ##r_E##

(b) The required return on debt, ##r_D##

(c) The after-tax required return on debt, ##r_D.(1-t_c)##

(d) The after-tax WACC, ##\text{WACC after tax}=\frac{D}{V_L}.r_D.(1-t_c )+\frac{E_L}{V_L}.r_E##

(e) The pre-tax WACC, ##\text{WACC before tax}=\frac{D}{V_L}.r_D+\frac{E_L}{V_L}.r_E##

Question 766  CFFA, WACC, interest tax shield, DDM

Use the below information to value a levered company with constant annual perpetual cash flows from assets. The next cash flow will be generated in one year from now, so a perpetuity can be used to value this firm. Both the operating and firm free cash flows are constant (but not equal to each other).

Data on a Levered Firm with Perpetual Cash Flows
Item abbreviation	Value	Item full name
##\text{OFCF}##	$100m	Operating free cash flow
##\text{FFCF or CFFA}##	$112m	Firm free cash flow or cash flow from assets (includes interest tax shields)
##g##	0% pa	Growth rate of OFCF and FFCF
##\text{WACC}_\text{BeforeTax}##	7% pa	Weighted average cost of capital before tax
##\text{WACC}_\text{AfterTax}##	6.25% pa	Weighted average cost of capital after tax
##r_\text{D}##	5% pa	Cost of debt
##r_\text{EL}##	9% pa	Cost of levered equity
##D/V_L##	50% pa	Debt to assets ratio, where the asset value includes tax shields
##t_c##	30%	Corporate tax rate

 

What is the value of the levered firm including interest tax shields?

(a) $431.111m

(b) $444.444m

(c) $485m

(d) $515.464m

(e) $1600m

Question 303  WACC, CAPM, CFFA

There are many different ways to value a firm's assets. Which of the following will NOT give the correct market value of a levered firm's assets ##(V_L)##? Assume that:

• The firm is financed by listed common stock and vanilla annual fixed coupon bonds, which are both traded in a liquid market.
• The bonds' yield is equal to the coupon rate, so the bonds are issued at par. The yield curve is flat and yields are not expected to change. When bonds mature they will be rolled over by issuing the same number of new bonds with the same expected yield and coupon rate, and so on forever.
• Tax rates on the dividends and capital gains received by investors are equal, and capital gains tax is paid every year, even on unrealised gains regardless of when the asset is sold.
• There is no re-investment of the firm's cash back into the business. All of the firm's excess cash flow is paid out as dividends so real growth is zero.
• The firm operates in a mature industry with zero real growth.
• All cash flows and rates in the below equations are real (not nominal) and are expected to be stable forever. Therefore the perpetuity equation with no growth is suitable for valuation.

(a) ##V_L = n_\text{shares}.P_\text{share} + n_\text{bonds}.P_\text{bond}##

(b) ##V_L = n_\text{shares}.\dfrac{\text{Dividend per share}}{r_f + \beta_{EL}(r_m - r_f)} + n_\text{bonds}.\dfrac{\text{Coupon per bond}}{r_f + \beta_D(r_m - r_f)}##

(c) ##V_L = \dfrac{\text{CFFA}_{L}}{r_\text{WACC before tax}}##

(d) ##V_L = \dfrac{\text{CFFA}_{U}}{r_\text{WACC after tax}}##

(e) ##V_L = \dfrac{\text{CFFA}_{L}}{r_\text{WACC after tax}}##

Where:

###r_\text{WACC before tax} = r_D.\frac{D}{V_L} + r_{EL}.\frac{E_L}{V_L} = \text{Weighted average cost of capital before tax}### ###r_\text{WACC after tax} = r_D.(1-t_c).\frac{D}{V_L} + r_{EL}.\frac{E_L}{V_L} = \text{Weighted average cost of capital after tax}### ###NI_L=(Rev-COGS-FC-Depr-\mathbf{IntExp}).(1-t_c) = \text{Net Income Levered}### ###CFFA_L=NI_L+Depr-CapEx - \varDelta NWC+\mathbf{IntExp} = \text{Cash Flow From Assets Levered}### ###NI_U=(Rev-COGS-FC-Depr).(1-t_c) = \text{Net Income Unlevered}### ###CFFA_U=NI_U+Depr-CapEx - \varDelta NWC= \text{Cash Flow From Assets Unlevered}###

Question 772  interest tax shield, capital structure, leverage

A firm issues debt and uses the funds to buy back equity. Assume that there are no costs of financial distress or transactions costs. Which of the following statements about interest tax shields is NOT correct?

(a) Higher debt leads to higher interest expense.

(b) Higher interest expense leads to lower profit before tax, following on from above.

(c) Lower profit before tax leads to lower tax payments, following on from above.

(d) Lower tax payments lead to higher cash flow from assets, following on from above.

(e) Lower profit after tax leads to a lower share price, following on from above.

Question 773  CFFA, WACC, interest tax shield, DDM

Use the below information to value a levered company with constant annual perpetual cash flows from assets. The next cash flow will be generated in one year from now, so a perpetuity can be used to value this firm. Both the operating and firm free cash flows are constant (but not equal to each other).

Data on a Levered Firm with Perpetual Cash Flows
Item abbreviation	Value	Item full name
##\text{OFCF}##	$48.5m	Operating free cash flow
##\text{FFCF or CFFA}##	$50m	Firm free cash flow or cash flow from assets
##g##	0% pa	Growth rate of OFCF and FFCF
##\text{WACC}_\text{BeforeTax}##	10% pa	Weighted average cost of capital before tax
##\text{WACC}_\text{AfterTax}##	9.7% pa	Weighted average cost of capital after tax
##r_\text{D}##	5% pa	Cost of debt
##r_\text{EL}##	11.25% pa	Cost of levered equity
##D/V_L##	20% pa	Debt to assets ratio, where the asset value includes tax shields
##t_c##	30%	Corporate tax rate

 

What is the value of the levered firm including interest tax shields?

(a) $515.464m

(b) $500m

(c) $485m

(d) $444.444m

(e) $431.111m

Question 804  CFFA, WACC, interest tax shield, DDM

Use the below information to value a levered company with annual perpetual cash flows from assets that grow. The next cash flow will be generated in one year from now. Note that ‘k’ means kilo or 1,000. So the $30k is $30,000.

Data on a Levered Firm with Perpetual Cash Flows
Item abbreviation	Value	Item full name
##\text{OFCF}##	$30k	Operating free cash flow
##g##	1.5% pa	Growth rate of OFCF
##r_\text{D}##	4% pa	Cost of debt
##r_\text{EL}##	16.3% pa	Cost of levered equity
##D/V_L##	80% pa	Debt to assets ratio, where the asset value includes tax shields
##t_c##	30%	Corporate tax rate
##n_\text{shares}##	100k	Number of shares

 

Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

(a) The WACC before tax is 6.46% pa.

(b) The WACC after tax is 5.50% pa.

(c) The current levered asset value including tax shields is $603.839k.

(d) The current debt value is $600k and the interest tax shield benefit over the first year is $7.2k (at t=1).

(e) The current share price is $1.50.

Question 504  CFFA

Read the following financial statements and calculate the firm's free cash flow over the 2014 financial year.

UBar Corp
Income Statement for
year ending 30th June 2014
	$m
Sales	293
COGS	200
Rent expense	15
Gas expense	8
Depreciation	10
EBIT	60
Interest expense	0
Taxable income	60
Taxes	18
Net income	42

UBar Corp
Balance Sheet
as at 30th June	2014	2013
	$m	$m
Assets
Cash	30	29
Accounts receivable	5	7
Pre-paid rent expense	1	0
Inventory	50	46
PPE	290	300
Total assets	376	382
Liabilities
Trade payables	20	18
Accrued gas expense	3	2
Non-current liabilities	0	0
Contributed equity	212	212
Retained profits	136	150
Asset revaluation reserve	5	0
Total L and OE	376	382

 

Note: all figures are given in millions of dollars ($m).

The firm's free cash flow over the 2014 financial year was:

(a) $51

(b) $52

(c) $58

(d) $61

(e) $62

Question 370  capital budgeting, NPV, interest tax shield, WACC, CFFA

Project Data
Project life	2 yrs
Initial investment in equipment	$600k
Depreciation of equipment per year	$250k
Expected sale price of equipment at end of project	$200k
Revenue per job	$12k
Variable cost per job	$4k
Quantity of jobs per year	120
Fixed costs per year, paid at the end of each year	$100k
Interest expense in first year (at t=1)	$16.091k
Interest expense in second year (at t=2)	$9.711k
Tax rate	30%
Government treasury bond yield	5%
Bank loan debt yield	6%
Levered cost of equity	12.5%
Market portfolio return	10%
Beta of assets	1.24
Beta of levered equity	1.5
Firm's and project's debt-to-equity ratio	25%

Notes

1. The project will require an immediate purchase of $50k of inventory, which will all be sold at cost when the project ends. Current liabilities are negligible so they can be ignored.

Assumptions

• The debt-to-equity ratio will be kept constant throughout the life of the project. The amount of interest expense at the end of each period has been correctly calculated to maintain this constant debt-to-equity ratio. Note that interest expense is different in each year.
• Thousands are represented by 'k' (kilo).
• All cash flows occur at the start or end of the year as appropriate, not in the middle or throughout the year.
• All rates and cash flows are nominal. The inflation rate is 2% pa.
• All rates are given as effective annual rates.
• The 50% capital gains tax discount is not available since the project is undertaken by a firm, not an individual.

What is the net present value (NPV) of the project?

(a) $684.222k

(b) $690.919k

(c) $697.616k

(d) $698.713k

(e) $710.601k

Question 418  capital budgeting, NPV, interest tax shield, WACC, CFFA, CAPM

Project Data
Project life	1 year
Initial investment in equipment	$8m
Depreciation of equipment per year	$8m
Expected sale price of equipment at end of project	0
Unit sales per year	4m
Sale price per unit	$10
Variable cost per unit	$5
Fixed costs per year, paid at the end of each year	$2m
Interest expense in first year (at t=1)	$0.562m
Corporate tax rate	30%
Government treasury bond yield	5%
Bank loan debt yield	9%
Market portfolio return	10%
Covariance of levered equity returns with market	0.32
Variance of market portfolio returns	0.16
Firm's and project's debt-to-equity ratio	50%

Notes

1. Due to the project, current assets will increase by $6m now (t=0) and fall by $6m at the end (t=1). Current liabilities will not be affected.

Assumptions

• The debt-to-equity ratio will be kept constant throughout the life of the project. The amount of interest expense at the end of each period has been correctly calculated to maintain this constant debt-to-equity ratio.
• Millions are represented by 'm'.
• All cash flows occur at the start or end of the year as appropriate, not in the middle or throughout the year.
• All rates and cash flows are real. The inflation rate is 2% pa. All rates are given as effective annual rates.
• The project is undertaken by a firm, not an individual.

What is the net present value (NPV) of the project?

(a) $5.772m

(b) $4.979m

(c) $4.959m

(d) $4.733m

(e) $4.584m

Question 419  capital budgeting, NPV, interest tax shield, WACC, CFFA, CAPM, no explanation

Project Data
Project life	1 year
Initial investment in equipment	$6m
Depreciation of equipment per year	$6m
Expected sale price of equipment at end of project	0
Unit sales per year	9m
Sale price per unit	$8
Variable cost per unit	$6
Fixed costs per year, paid at the end of each year	$1m
Interest expense in first year (at t=1)	$0.53m
Tax rate	30%
Government treasury bond yield	5%
Bank loan debt yield	6%
Market portfolio return	10%
Covariance of levered equity returns with market	0.08
Variance of market portfolio returns	0.16
Firm's and project's debt-to-assets ratio	50%

Notes

1. Due to the project, current assets will increase by $5m now (t=0) and fall by $5m at the end (t=1). Current liabilities will not be affected.

Assumptions

• The debt-to-assets ratio will be kept constant throughout the life of the project. The amount of interest expense at the end of each period has been correctly calculated to maintain this constant debt-to-equity ratio.
• Millions are represented by 'm'.
• All cash flows occur at the start or end of the year as appropriate, not in the middle or throughout the year.
• All rates and cash flows are real. The inflation rate is 2% pa.
• All rates are given as effective annual rates.
• The 50% capital gains tax discount is not available since the project is undertaken by a firm, not an individual.

What is the net present value (NPV) of the project?

(a) $7.33k

(b) $7.299k

(c) $6.946k

(d) $6.729k

(e) $6.667k

Question 275  derivative terminology, future

The 'futures price' in a futures contract is paid at the start when the futures contract is agreed to. or ?

Question 641  future, no explanation

Which of the below formulas gives the payoff at maturity ##(f_T)## from being long a future? Let the underlying asset price at maturity be ##S_T## and the locked-in futures price be ##K_T##.

(a) ##f_{LF,T}=S_T+K_T##

(b) ##f_{LF,T}=-S_T-K_T##

(c) ##f_{LF,T}=S_T-K_T##

(d) ##f_{LF,T}=K_T-S_T##

(e) ##f_{LF,T}=S_T##

Question 651  future

Which of the following statements about futures is NOT correct?

(a) Futures quotes displayed on the exchange change continuously.

(b) Futures prices written in existing futures contracts are fixed, they do not change since they’re written in the legal contract.

(c) One year futures quotes equal the market’s expectation of the underlying asset price in one year. For this reason futures markets are a good predictor of the underlying asset prices.

(d) Futures prices can be calculated based on the spot price of the underlying asset compounded forward at the total opportunity cost of capital, less any storage costs and plus any income yields such as dividends.

(e) The futures price quote and the underlying asset's spot price will converge over time. At the future's expiry they’ll be equal.

Question 642  future, no explanation

Which of the below formulas gives the payoff at maturity ##(f_T)## from being short a future? Let the underlying asset price at maturity be ##S_T## and the locked-in futures price be ##K_T##.

(a) ##f_{SF,T}=S_T+K_T##

(b) ##f_{SF,T}=-S_T-K_T##

(c) ##f_{SF,T}=S_T-K_T##

(d) ##f_{SF,T}=K_T-S_T##

(e) ##f_{SF,T}=S_T##

Question 643  future, no explanation

A trader buys one crude oil futures contract on the CME expiring in one year with a locked-in futures price of $38.94 per barrel. If the trader doesn’t close out her contract before expiry then in one year she will have the:

(a) Obligation to buy the underlying oil at $38.94 per barrel.

(b) Obligation to sell the underlying oil at $38.94 per barrel.

(c) Right to buy the underlying oil at $38.94 per barrel if she wants.

(d) Right to sell the underlying oil at $38.94 per barrel if she wants.

(e) Obligation to buy the underlying oil $38.94 per barrel if her counter party chooses to sell it.

Question 644  future, no explanation

A trader sells one crude oil futures contract on the CME expiring in one year with a locked-in futures price of $38.94 per barrel. The crude oil spot price is $40.33. If the trader doesn’t close out her contract before expiry then in one year she will have the:

(a) Obligation to buy the underlying oil at $38.94 per barrel.

(b) Obligation to sell the underlying oil at $38.94 per barrel.

(c) Right to buy the underlying oil at $38.94 per barrel if she wants.

(d) Right to sell the underlying oil at $38.94 per barrel if she wants.

(e) Obligation to buy the underlying oil $38.94 per barrel if the counter party chooses to sell it.

Question 589  future, contango, market efficiency

In general, stock prices tend to rise. What does this mean for futures on equity?

(a) Equity futures prices tend to be higher than spot prices. This is called contango.

(b) Equity futures prices tend to be equal to spot prices.

(c) Equity futures are generally under-priced.

(d) Equity futures are generally over-priced.

(e) Long equity futures traders tend to make more money than short equity futures traders.

Question 590  future, market efficiency

Which of the following statements about futures contracts on shares is NOT correct, assuming that markets are efficient?

When an equity future is first negotiated (at t=0):

(a) The futures price quote ##(F_T)## is 'fair'. It's neither over- nor under-priced to the long or short trader.

(b) The futures price quote ##(F_T)## equals the expected underlying asset price at maturity.

(c) The futures price quote ##(F_0)## is initially zero.

(d) The value of the future ##(V_0)## is initially zero to both the long and short trader.

(e) If the value of the future ##(V_0)## rises for the long trader, it must have fallen for the short trader, and vice versa.

Question 594  future, continuously compounding rate

The current gold price is $700, gold storage costs are 2% pa and the risk free rate is 10% pa, both with continuous compounding.

What should be the 3 year gold futures price?

(a) $758.30

(b) $773.62

(c) $889.87

(d) $944.90

(e) $1,003.33

Question 595  future, continuously compounding rate

A 2-year futures contract on a stock paying a continuous dividend yield of 3% pa was bought when the underlying stock price was $10 and the risk free rate was 10% per annum with continuous compounding. Assume that investors are risk-neutral, so the stock's total required return is the risk free rate.

Find the forward price ##(F_2)## and value of the contract ##(V_0)## initially. Also find the value of the contract in 6 months ##(V_{0.5})## if the stock price rose to $12.

(a) ##F_2=11.5027, V_0=0, V_{0.5}=1.5715##

(b) ##F_2=11.5027, V_0=0, V_{0.5}=1.8258##

(c) ##F_2=12.9693, V_0=0, V_{0.5}=1.3218##

(d) ##F_2=12.9693, V_0=0, V_{0.5}=1.3896##

(e) ##F_2=12.9693, V_0=0, V_{0.5}=1.6144##

Question 597  future, continuously compounding rate

A stock is expected to pay a dividend of $5 per share in 1 month and $5 again in 7 months.

The stock price is $100, and the risk-free rate of interest is 10% per annum with continuous compounding. The yield curve is flat. Assume that investors are risk-neutral.

An investor has just taken a short position in a one year forward contract on the stock.

Find the forward price ##(F_1)## and value of the contract ##(V_0)## initially. Also find the value of the short futures contract in 6 months ##(V_\text{0.5, SF})## if the stock price fell to $90.

(a) ##F_1=110.5171, V_0=0, V_\text{0.5, SF}=14.7829##

(b) ##F_1=110.5171, V_0=0, V_\text{0.5, SF}=15.1271##

(c) ##F_1=99.8244, V_0=0, V_\text{0.5, SF}=14.7829##

(d) ##F_1=99.8244, V_0=0, V_\text{0.5, SF}=20.5171##

(e) ##F_1=99.8244, V_0=0, V_\text{0.5, SF}=9.9144##

Question 650  future, closing out future contract

In February a company sold one December 40,000 pound (about 18 metric tons) lean hog futures contract. It closed out its position in May.

The spot price was $0.68 per pound in February. The December futures price was $0.70 per pound when the trader entered into the contract in February, $0.60 when he closed out his position in May, and $0.55 when the contract matured in December.

What was the total profit?

(a) $2,000

(b) $3,200

(c) $4,000

(d) $5,200

(e) $6,000

Question 686  future

Which of the following statements about futures is NOT correct?

(a) Buyers of futures are required to pay an initial margin at the start.

(b) Futures are a zero-sum game in the sense that the winner gains at the expense of the loser.

(c) Buyers of futures have to pay the futures price at the start.

(d) Buyers of futures do not care about the credit risk of the original future seller since the contract is novated by the exchange.

(e) Speculators who sell futures hope that the underlying asset price falls.

Question 684  future, arbitrage, no explanation

An equity index stands at 100 points and the one year equity futures price is 102.

The equity index is expected to have a dividend yield of 4% pa. Assume that investors are risk-neutral so their total required return on the shares is the same as the risk free Treasury bond yield which is 10% pa. Both are given as discrete effective annual rates.

Assuming that the equity index is fairly priced, an arbitrageur would recognise that the equity futures are:

(a) Under priced and should be bought.

(b) Under priced and should be sold.

(c) Over priced and should be bought.

(d) Over priced and should be sold.

(e) Fairly priced and an arbitrageur would be indifferent to buying or selling them.

Question 685  future, arbitrage, no explanation

An equity index stands at 100 points and the one year equity futures price is 107.

The equity index is expected to have a dividend yield of 3% pa. Assume that investors are risk-neutral so their total required return on the shares is the same as the risk free Treasury bond yield which is 10% pa. Both are given as discrete effective annual rates.

Assuming that the equity index is fairly priced, an arbitrageur would recognise that the equity futures are:

(a) Under priced and should be bought.

(b) Under priced and should be sold.

(c) Over priced and should be bought.

(d) Over priced and should be sold.

(e) Fairly priced and an arbitrageur would be indifferent to buying or selling them.

Question 916  future, future valuation

A stock is expected to pay its semi-annual dividend of $1 per share for the foreseeable future. The current stock price is $40 and the continuously compounded risk free rate is 3% pa for all maturities. An investor has just taken a long position in a 12-month futures contract on the stock. The last dividend payment was exactly 4 months ago. Therefore the next $1 dividend is in 2 months, and the $1 dividend after is 8 months from now. Which of the following statements about this scenario is NOT correct?

(a) The initial futures price would be $39.1828.

(b) The initial value of the futures contract would be zero.

(c) If the spot price rose to $45 at month 1, then the value of the futures contract would be positive $4.8999 at that time.

(d) If the spot price fell to $35 at month 3, then the value of the futures contract would be negative $4.1828 at that time.

(e) If the spot price remained at $40 until maturity, then the value of the futures contract would be positive $0.8172 at that time.

Question 274  derivative terminology, option

The 'option price' in an option contract is paid at the start when the option contract is agreed to. or ?

Question 276  derivative terminology, option

The 'option strike price' in an option contract, also known as the exercise price, is paid at the start when the option contract is agreed to. or ?

Question 305  option, short selling, speculation

You believe that the price of a share will fall significantly very soon, but the rest of the market does not. The market thinks that the share price will remain the same. Assuming that your prediction will soon be true, which of the following trades is a bad idea? In other words, which trade will NOT make money or prevent losses?

(a) Sell all existing stock that you own.

(b) Short sell the stock.

(c) Buy put options on the stock.

(d) Sell put options on the stock.

(e) Sell call options on the stock.

Question 334  option

Which option position has the possibility of unlimited potential losses?

(a) Long call options.

(b) Short call options.

(c) Long put options.

(d) Short put options.

(e) No option positions have the possibility of unlimited potential losses.

Question 585  option

A man just sold a call option to his counterparty, a lady. The man has just now:

(a) Bought the right to buy the underlying asset from her at maturity if he wants.

(b) Bought the right to sell the underlying asset to her at maturity if he wants.

(c) Sold the right that allows her to buy the underlying asset from him at maturity if she wants.

(d) Sold the right that allows her to sell the underlying asset to him at maturity if she wants.

(e) Sold a contract that obliges him to buy the underlying asset from her at maturity if she wants.

Question 399  option, no explanation

A European call option will mature in ##T## years with a strike price of ##K## dollars. The underlying asset has a price of ##S## dollars.

What is an expression for the payoff at maturity ##(f_T)## in dollars from owning (being long) the call option?

(a) ##\max(S_T - K, 0)##.

(b) ##\max(S_T - K, K)##.

(c) ##\max(K-S_T, 0)##.

(d) ##\max(K-S_T, K)##.

(e) ##\min(K-S_T, 0)##.

Question 400  option, no explanation

A European put option will mature in ##T## years with a strike price of ##K## dollars. The underlying asset has a price of ##S## dollars.

What is an expression for the payoff at maturity ##(f_T)## in dollars from owning (being long) the put option?

(a) ##\max(S_T - K, 0)##.

(b) ##\max(S_T - K, K)##.

(c) ##\max(K-S_T, 0)##.

(d) ##\max(K-S_T, K)##.

(e) ##\min(K-S_T, 0)##.

Question 430  option, no explanation

A European call option will mature in ##T## years with a strike price of ##K## dollars. The underlying asset has a price of ##S## dollars.

What is an expression for the payoff at maturity ##(f_T)## in dollars from having written (being short) the call option?

(a) ##\min(S_T - K, 0)##.

(b) ##-\min(S_T - K, 0)##.

(c) ##\max(K-S_T, 0)##.

(d) ##-\max(K-S_T, 0)##.

(e)##-\max(S_T-K, 0)##.

Question 431  option, no explanation

A European put option will mature in ##T## years with a strike price of ##K## dollars. The underlying asset has a price of ##S## dollars.

What is an expression for the payoff at maturity ##(f_T)## in dollars from having written (being short) the put option?

(a) ##\max(S_T - K, 0)##.

(b) ##-\max(S_T - K, 0)##.

(c) ##\max(K-S_T, 0)##.

(d) ##-\max(K-S_T, 0)##.

(e) ##-\min(S_T - K, 0)##.

Question 432  option, option intrinsic value, no explanation

An American style call option with a strike price of ##K## dollars will mature in ##T## years. The underlying asset has a price of ##S## dollars.

What is an expression for the current intrinsic value in dollars from owning (being long) the American style call option? Note that the intrinsic value of an option does not subtract the premium paid to buy the option.

(a) ##\min(S_0 - K, 0)##.

(b) ##\min(K-S_0, 0)##.

(c) ##\max(S_0-K, 0)##.

(d) ##\max(K-S_0, 0)##.

(e) ##\max(K, S_0)##.

Question 586  option

Which one of the following statements about option contracts is NOT correct?

(a) Option premium is another name for option price.

(b) An option contract's price is always changing.

(c) Strike price is another name for exercise price.

(d) An option contract's strike price is always changing.

(e) Call and put option premiums are paid at the start when the option is bought. Call option exercise prices are paid when they are exercised, usually at maturity.

Question 587  option

Which of the following statements about option contracts is NOT correct? For every:

(a) Long call option there must be a short call option.

(b) Long put option there must be a short put option.

(c) Long option there must be a short option.

(d) Call option there must be a put option.

(e) Option trader who gains there must be one or more option traders who lose.

Question 588  option

If trader A has sold the right that allows counterparty B to buy the underlying asset from him at maturity if counterparty B wants then trader A is:

(a) Long a call option.

(b) Long a put option.

(c) Short a call option.

(d) Short a put option.

(e) Neither long or short a call or a put option.

Question 591  short selling, future, option

After doing extensive fundamental analysis of a company, you believe that their shares are overpriced and will soon fall significantly. The market believes that there will be no such fall.

Which of the following strategies is NOT a good idea, assuming that your prediction is true?

(a) Sell any of the firm's shares that you already own.

(b) Short-sell the firm's shares.

(c) Sell futures written on the shares.

(d) Buy put options written on the shares.

(e) Buy call options written on the shares.

Question 636  option, option payoff at maturity, no explanation

Which of the below formulas gives the payoff ##(f)## at maturity ##(T)## from being long a call option? Let the underlying asset price at maturity be ##S_T## and the exercise price be ##X_T##.

(a) ##f_{LC,T}=max⁡(S_T-X_T,0)##

(b) ##f_{LC,T}=max⁡(X_T-S_T,0)##

(c) ##f_{LC,T}=-max⁡(S_T-X_T,0)##

(d) ##f_{LC,T}=-max⁡(X_T-S_T,0)##

(e) ##f_{LC,T}=min⁡(X_T-S_T,0)##

Question 637  option, option payoff at maturity, no explanation

Which of the below formulas gives the payoff ##(f)## at maturity ##(T)## from being short a call option? Let the underlying asset price at maturity be ##S_T## and the exercise price be ##X_T##.

(a) ##f_{SC,T}=max⁡(S_T-X_T,0)##

(b) ##f_{SC,T}=max⁡(X_T-S_T,0)##

(c) ##f_{SC,T}=-max⁡(S_T-X_T,0)##

(d) ##f_{SC,T}=-max⁡(X_T-S_T,0)##

(e) ##f_{SC,T}=min⁡(X_T-S_T,0)##

Question 638  option, option payoff at maturity, no explanation

Which of the below formulas gives the payoff ##(f)## at maturity ##(T)## from being long a put option? Let the underlying asset price at maturity be ##S_T## and the exercise price be ##X_T##.

(a) ##f_{LP,T}=max⁡(S_T-X_T,0)##

(b) ##f_{LP,T}=max⁡(X_T-S_T,0)##

(c) ##f_{LP,T}=-max⁡(S_T-X_T,0)##

(d) ##f_{LP,T}=-max⁡(X_T-S_T,0)##

(e) ##f_{LP,T}=min⁡(X_T-S_T,0)##

Question 639  option, option payoff at maturity, no explanation

Which of the below formulas gives the payoff ##(f)## at maturity ##(T)## from being short a put option? Let the underlying asset price at maturity be ##S_T## and the exercise price be ##X_T##.

(a) ##f_{SP,T}=max⁡(S_T-X_T,0)##

(b) ##f_{SP,T}=max⁡(X_T-S_T,0)##

(c) ##f_{SP,T}=-max⁡(S_T-X_T,0)##

(d) ##f_{SP,T}=-max⁡(X_T-S_T,0)##

(e) ##f_{SP,T}=min⁡(X_T-S_T,0)##

Question 640  option, future, no explanation

Which one of the below option and futures contracts gives the possibility of potentially unlimited gains?

(a) Long call contracts.

(b) Short call contracts.

(c) Long put contracts.

(d) Short put contracts.

(e) Short future contracts.

Question 645  option, no explanation

A trader buys one crude oil European style call option contract on the CME expiring in one year with an exercise price of $44 per barrel for a price of $6.64. The crude oil spot price is $40.33. If the trader doesn’t close out her contract before maturity, then at maturity she will have the:

(a) Obligation to buy the underlying oil at $44 per barrel.

(b) Obligation to sell the underlying oil at $44 per barrel.

(c) Right to buy the underlying oil at $44 per barrel if she wants.

(d) Right to sell the underlying oil at $44 per barrel if she wants.

(e) Obligation to buy the underlying oil at $44 per barrel if her counter party chooses to sell it.

Question 675  option, option profit, no explanation

Which of the below formulas gives the profit ##(\pi)## from being long a call option? Let the underlying asset price at maturity be ##S_T##, the exercise price be ##X_T## and the option price be ##f_{LC,0}##. Note that ##S_T##, ##X_T## and ##f_{LC,0}## are all positive numbers.

(a) ##\pi_{LC}=max⁡(S_T-X_T,0) + f_{LC,0}##

(b) ##\pi_{LC}=max⁡(X_T-S_T,0) + f_{LC,0}##

(c) ##\pi_{LC}=-max⁡(S_T-X_T,0) + f_{LC,0}##

(d) ##\pi_{LC}=max⁡(X_T-S_T,0) - f_{LC,0}##

(e) ##\pi_{LC}=max(S_T-X_T,0) - f_{LC,0}##

Question 676  option, option profit, no explanation

Which of the below formulas gives the profit ##(\pi)## from being short a call option? Let the underlying asset price at maturity be ##S_T##, the exercise price be ##X_T## and the option price be ##f_{LC,0}##. Note that ##S_T##, ##X_T## and ##f_{LC,0}## are all positive numbers.

(a) ##\pi_{SC}=max⁡(S_T-X_T,0) + f_{LC,0}##

(b) ##\pi_{SC}=-max⁡(S_T-X_T,0) + f_{LC,0}##

(c) ##\pi_{SC}=max⁡(X_T-S_T,0) + f_{LC,0}##

(d) ##\pi_{SC}=-max⁡(S_T-X_T,0) - f_{LC,0}##

(e) ##\pi_{SC}=-max(X_T-S_T,0) - f_{LC,0}##

Question 677  option, option profit, no explanation

Which of the below formulas gives the profit ##(\pi)## from being long a put option? Let the underlying asset price at maturity be ##S_T##, the exercise price be ##X_T## and the option price be ##f_{LP,0}##. Note that ##S_T##, ##X_T## and ##f_{LP,0}## are all positive numbers.

(a) ##\pi_{LP}=-max⁡(S_T-X_T,0) - f_{LP,0}##

(b) ##\pi_{LP}=-max⁡(X_T-S_T,0) + f_{LP,0}##

(c) ##\pi_{LP}=max⁡(S_T-X_T,0) - f_{LP,0}##

(d) ##\pi_{LP}=max⁡(X_T-S_T,0) + f_{LP,0}##

(e) ##\pi_{LP}=max(X_T-S_T,0) - f_{LP,0}##

Question 678  option, option profit, no explanation

Which of the below formulas gives the profit ##(\pi)## from being short a put option? Let the underlying asset price at maturity be ##S_T##, the exercise price be ##X_T## and the option price be ##f_{LP,0}##. Note that ##S_T##, ##X_T## and ##f_{LP,0}## are all positive numbers.

(a) ##\pi_{SP}=-max⁡(S_T-X_T,0) - f_{LP,0}##

(b) ##\pi_{SP}=-max⁡(X_T-S_T,0) + f_{LP,0}##

(c) ##\pi_{SP}=max⁡(S_T-X_T,0) - f_{LP,0}##

(d) ##\pi_{SP}=max⁡(X_T-S_T,0) + f_{LP,0}##

(e) ##\pi_{SP}=max(X_T-S_T,0) - f_{LP,0}##

Question 679  option, no explanation

A trader sells one crude oil European style call option contract on the CME expiring in one year with an exercise price of $44 per barrel for a price of $6.64. The crude oil spot price is $40.33. If the trader doesn’t close out her contract before maturity, then at maturity she will have the:

(a) Obligation to buy the underlying oil at $44 per barrel.

(b) Obligation to sell the underlying oil at $44 per barrel.

(c) Right to sell the underlying oil at $44 per barrel if she wants.

(d) Obligation to buy the underlying oil $44 per barrel if the counterparty chooses to sell it.

(e) Obligation to sell the underlying oil at $44 per barrel if the counterparty chooses to buy it.

Question 680  option, no explanation

A trader buys one crude oil European style put option contract on the CME expiring in one year with an exercise price of $44 per barrel for a price of $6.64. The crude oil spot price is $40.33. If the trader doesn’t close out her contract before maturity, then at maturity she will have the:

(a) Obligation to sell the underlying oil at $44 per barrel.

(b) Right to buy the underlying oil at $44 per barrel if she wants.

(c) Right to sell the underlying oil at $44 per barrel if she wants.

(d) Obligation to buy the underlying oil $44 per barrel if the counterparty chooses to sell it.

(e) Obligation to sell the underlying oil at $44 per barrel if the counterparty chooses to buy it.

Question 687  option, no explanation

Which of the following statements about call options is NOT correct?

(a) Buyers of call options are required to pay an initial margin at the start.

(b) Call options are a zero-sum game in the sense that the winner gains at the expense of the loser.

(c) Buyers of call options have to pay the option price at the start.

(d) Buyers of call options do not care about the credit risk of the original call option seller since the contract is novated by the exchange.

(e) Speculators who sell call options hope that the underlying asset price falls.

Question 690  option

A trader just bought a European style put option on CBA stock. The current option premium is $2, the exercise price is $75, the option matures in one year and the spot CBA stock price is $74.

Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

(a) The long trader paid the option premium at the start.

(b) The option is 'out of the money' at the start.

(c) The long trader wishes for the underlying CBA stock price to fall.

(d) The option can only be exercised at maturity.

(e) If the stock price falls to $60 at maturity, then the long trader can buy the underlying stock for $60, exercise his option to sell the underlying stock to his counterparty for $75, making a payoff at maturity of $15 and a profit of $13.

Question 435  option, no explanation

Will the price of a call option on equity or if the standard deviation of returns (risk) of the underlying shares becomes higher?

Question 436  option, no explanation

Will the price of an out-of-the-money put option on equity or if the standard deviation of returns (risk) of the underlying shares becomes higher?

Question 437  option, no explanation

Two call options are exactly the same, but one matures in one year and the other matures in two years. Which option would you expect to have the higher price, the option which matures or , or should they have the price?

Question 438  option, no explanation

Two put options are exactly the same, but one matures in one year and the other matures in two years. Which option would you expect to have the higher price, the option which matures or , or should they have the price?

Question 439  option, no explanation

Two call options are exactly the same, but one has a low and the other has a high exercise price. Which option would you expect to have the higher price, the option with the or exercise price, or should they have the price?

Question 440  option, no explanation

Two put options are exactly the same, but one has a low and the other has a high exercise price. Which option would you expect to have the higher price, the option with the or exercise price, or should they have the price?

Question 584  option, option payoff at maturity, option profit

Which of the following statements about European call options on non-dividend paying stocks is NOT correct?

(a) A long call option's payoff at maturity is equal to the maximum of zero or the underlying asset price at maturity minus the exercise price. ##f_\text{T,LC} = max(S_T - K, 0)##

(b) A long call option's profit is equal to the payoff at maturity less the initial option price. ##\pi_\text{LC} = max(S_T - K, 0) - c_0##

(c) The breakeven price is the underlying asset price at which a long option contract gives zero profit. When ##max(S_T - K, 0) - c_0 = 0##, then ##S_T = K+c_0##.

(d) A call option's break-even price is always more than its strike price.

(e) Call options should only be exercised at maturity if the underlying asset price is above the break-even price.

Question 102  option, hedging

A company runs a number of slaughterhouses which supply hamburger meat to McDonalds. The company is afraid that live cattle prices will increase over the next year, even though there is widespread belief in the market that they will be stable. What can the company do to hedge against the risk of increasing live cattle prices? Which statement(s) are correct?

(i) buy call options on live cattle.

(ii) buy put options on live cattle.

(iii) sell call options on live cattle.

Select the most correct response:

(a) Only (i) is true.

(b) Only (ii) is true.

(c) Only (iii) is true.

(d) Only (i) and (ii) is true.

(e) All statements (i), (ii) and (iii) are true.

Question 103  option

Below are 4 option graphs. Note that the y-axis is payoff at maturity (T). What options do they depict? List them in the order that they are numbered.

(a) 1: short call, 2: long call, 3: short put, 4: long put.

(b) 1: long call, 2: long put, 3: short call, 4: short put.

(c) 1: short put, 2: long put, 3: short call, 4: long call.

(d) 1: long put, 2: short put, 3: long call, 4: short call.

(e) 1: long put, 2: short call, 3: short put, 4: long call.

Question 122  option

You have just sold an 'in the money' 6 month European put option on the mining company BHP at an exercise price of $40 for a premium of $3.

Which of the following statements best describes your situation?

(a) You have bought the right to buy a BHP share for $40 in 6 months.

(b) You have bought the right to sell a BHP share for $40 in 6 months.

(c) You have bought the obligation to sell a BHP share for $40 in 6 months.

(d) You have sold the right that allows your counterparty to buy a BHP share from you for $40 in 6 months. This means that you have the obligation to sell a BHP share to your counterparty for $40 in 6 months if he wants to buy it.

(e) You have sold the right that allows your counterparty to sell a BHP share to you for $40 in 6 months. This means that you have the obligation to buy a BHP share from your counterparty for $40 in 6 months if he wants to sell it.

Question 124  option, hedging

You operate a cattle farm that supplies hamburger meat to the big fast food chains. You buy a lot of grain to feed your cattle, and you sell the fully grown cattle on the livestock market.

You're afraid of adverse movements in grain and livestock prices. What options should you buy to hedge your exposures in the grain and cattle livestock markets?

Select the most correct response:

(a) Buy calls on grain, buy calls on cattle livestock.

(b) Buy calls on grain, buy puts on cattle livestock.

(c) Buy puts on grain, buy calls on cattle livestock.

(d) Buy puts on grain, buy puts on cattle livestock.

(e) Statements (a) and (d) are both correct.

Question 271  CAPM, option, risk, systematic risk, systematic and idiosyncratic risk

All things remaining equal, according to the capital asset pricing model, if the systematic variance of an asset increases, its required return will increase and its price will decrease.
If the idiosyncratic variance of an asset increases, its price will be unchanged.

What is the relationship between the price of a call or put option and the total, systematic and idiosyncratic variance of the underlying asset that the option is based on? Select the most correct answer.

Call and put option prices increase when the:

(a) Systematic variance of the underlying asset increases.

(b) Idiosyncratic variance of the underlying asset increases.

(c) Systematic, idiosyncratic or total variance of the underlying asset increases.

(d) Systematic variance of the underlying asset decreases.

(e) Systematic, idiosyncratic or total variance of the underlying asset decreases.

Question 671  future, forward, hedging

It's possible for both parties in a futures or forward contract to be hedging, so neither are speculating. or ?

Question 688  future, hedging

A pig farmer in the US is worried about the price of hogs falling and wants to lock in a price now. In one year the pig farmer intends to sell 1,000,000 pounds of hogs. Luckily, one year CME lean hog futures expire on the exact day that he wishes to sell his pigs. The futures have a notional principal of 40,000 pounds (about 18 metric tons) and currently trade at a price of 63.85 cents per pound. The underlying lean hogs spot price is 77.15 cents per pound. The correlation between the futures price and the underlying hogs price is one and the standard deviations are both 4 cents per pound. The initial margin is USD1,500 and the maintenance margin is USD1,200 per futures contract.

Which of the below statements is NOT correct?

(a) The pig farmer should sell futures to hedge against the danger of falling hog prices.

(b) The pig farmer should transact 30 lean hogs futures contracts with tailing since futures contracts require margins.

(c) The total initial margin that must be paid to the pig farmer’s futures broker is $45,000.

(d) If the futures price falls by more than 0.01175 cents per pound (rounded to 5 decimal places) then the pig farmer will receive a margin call from their broker.

(e) The future is trading in backwardation since the spot price exceeds the futures price, so the current basis is positive 13.30 cents.

Question 689  future, hedging

An equity index fund manager controls a USD1 billion diversified equity portfolio with a beta of 1.3. The equity manager fears that a global recession will begin in the next year, causing equity prices to tumble. The market does not think that this will happen. If the fund manager wishes to reduce her portfolio beta to 0.5, how many S&P500 futures should she sell?

The US market equity index is the S&P500. One year CME futures on the S&P500 currently trade at 2,062 points and the spot price is 2,091 points. Each point is worth $250. How many one year S&P500 futures contracts should the fund manager sell?

(a) 970

(b) 1,530

(c) 1,552

(d) 2,487

(e) 2,522

Question 692  future, hedging, no explanation

The standard deviation of monthly changes in the spot price of corn is 50 cents per bushel. The standard deviation of monthly changes in the futures price of corn is 40 cents per bushel. The correlation between the spot price of corn and the futures price of corn is 0.9.

It is now March. A corn chip manufacturer is committed to buying 250,000 bushels of corn in May. The spot price of corn is 381 cents per bushel and the June futures price is 399 cents per bushel.

The corn chip manufacturer wants to use the June corn futures contracts to hedge his risk. Each futures contract is for the delivery of 5,000 bushels of corn. One bushel is about 127 metric tons.

How many corn futures should the corn chip manufacturer buy to hedge his risk? Round your answer to the nearest whole number of contracts. Remember to tail the hedge.

(a) 34

(b) 48

(c) 52

(d) 54

(e) 59

Question 826  future, basis risk, hedging

On 1 February 2016 you were told that your refinery company will need to purchase oil on 1 July 2016. You were afraid of the oil price rising between now and then so you bought some August 2016 futures contracts on 1 February 2016 to hedge against changes in the oil price. On 1 February 2016 the oil price was $40 and the August 2016 futures price was $43.

It's now 1 July 2016 and oil price is $45 and the August 2016 futures price is $46. You bought the spot oil and closed out your futures position on 1 July 2016.

What was the effective price paid for the oil, taking into account basis risk? All spot and futures oil prices quoted above and below are per barrel.

(a) $37

(b) $42

(c) $44

(d) $45

(e) $48

Question 827  future, basis risk, no explanation

You intend to use futures on oil to hedge the risk of purchasing oil. There is no cross-hedging risk. Oil pays no dividends but it’s costly to store. Which of the following statements about basis risk in this scenario is NOT correct?

(a) Basis risk makes hedges more risky.

(b) Basis risk can only lead to worse than expected effective dollar prices.

(c) Basis risk only occurs when the future is closed out early, before it matures.

(d) ‘The basis’ is defined as the underlying spot price less the futures price quote ##(S_t - F_{t,T})##.

(e) The futures price of oil will tend to be higher than the spot price due to storage costs, so the basis will tend to be positive for hedgers who long futures contracts.

Question 785  fixed for floating interest rate swap, non-intermediated swap

The below table summarises the borrowing costs confronting two companies A and B.

Bond Market Yields
	Fixed Yield to Maturity (%pa)	Floating Yield (%pa)
Firm A	3	L - 0.4
Firm B	5	L + 1

 

Firm A wishes to borrow at a floating rate and Firm B wishes to borrow at a fixed rate. Design a non-intermediated swap that benefits firm A only. What will be the swap rate?

(a) 2% pa.

(b) 2.6% pa.

(c) 3.4% pa.

(d) 4% pa.

(e) 4.6% pa.

Question 786  fixed for floating interest rate swap, intermediated swap

The below table summarises the borrowing costs confronting two companies A and B.

Bond Market Yields
	Fixed Yield to Maturity (%pa)	Floating Yield (%pa)
Firm A	3	L - 0.4
Firm B	5	L + 1

 

Firm A wishes to borrow at a floating rate and Firm B wishes to borrow at a fixed rate. Design an intermediated swap (which means there will actually be two swaps) that nets a bank 0.1% and shares the remaining swap benefits between Firms A and B equally. Which of the following statements about the swap is NOT correct?

(a) Firm A has the absolute advantage issuing bonds in both the fixed and floating coupon bond markets.

(b) Firm A has a comparative advantage issuing bonds in the fixed coupon bond market.

(c) Firm B has a comparative advantage issuing bonds in the floating coupon bond market.

(d) The swap rate between Firm A and the Bank would be 3.65% pa.

(e) The swap rate between Firm B and the Bank would be 3.55% pa.

Question 787  fixed for floating interest rate swap, intermediated swap

The below table summarises the borrowing costs confronting two companies A and B.

Bond Market Yields
	Fixed Yield to Maturity (%pa)	Floating Yield (%pa)
Firm A	2	L - 0.1
Firm B	2.5	L

 

Firm A wishes to borrow at a floating rate and Firm B wishes to borrow at a fixed rate. Design an intermediated swap (which means there will actually be two swaps) that nets a bank 0.15% and grants the remaining swap benefits to Firm A only. Which of the following statements about the swap is NOT correct?

(a) Firm A is less risky than Firm B. Firm A would have a higher credit rating.

(b) Firm A has the absolute advantage issuing bonds in both the fixed and floating coupon bond markets.

(c) Firm A has a comparative advantage issuing bonds in the floating coupon bond market.

(d) The net benefit from the swap available to Firm A is 0.25%.

(e) The swap rate between Firm B and the Bank would be 2.5% pa.

Question 670  fixed for floating interest rate swap

A company can invest funds in a five year project at LIBOR plus 50 basis points pa. The five-year swap rate is 4% pa. What fixed rate of interest can the company earn over the next five years by using the swap?

(a) 0% pa

(b) 3.5% pa

(c) 4% pa

(d) 4.5% pa

(e) 5% pa

Question 834  option, delta, theta, gamma, standard deviation, Black-Scholes-Merton option pricing

Which of the following statements about an option (either a call or put) and its underlying stock is NOT correct?

European Call Option
on a non-dividend paying stock
Description	Symbol	Quantity
Spot price ($)	##S_0##	20
Strike price ($)	##K_T##	18
Risk free cont. comp. rate (pa)	##r##	0.05
Standard deviation of the stock's cont. comp. returns (pa)	##\sigma##	0.3
Option maturity (years)	##T##	1
Call option price ($)	##c_0##	3.939488
Delta	##\Delta = N[d_1]##	0.747891
##N[d_2]##	##N[d_2]##	0.643514
Gamma	##\Gamma##	0.053199
Theta ($/year)	##\Theta = \partial c / \partial T##	1.566433

 

(a) A one cent ($0.01) increase in the underlying stock price is expected to lead to a 0.747891 cent ($0.00747891) increase in the call option price.

(b) The (risk-neutral) probability of the call option maturing ‘in-the-money’ is 0.643514.

(c) A one cent ($0.01) increase in the underlying stock price is expected to lead to a 0.00053199 unit increase in the call option Delta.

(d) The underlying stocks’ standard deviation of returns per day is 0.015702718 assuming 365 days per year and zero auto-correlation.

(e) After one day, all other things remaining equal, the option price is expected to fall by $1.566433 assuming 365 days per year.

Question 793  option, hedging, delta hedging, gamma hedging, gamma, Black-Scholes-Merton option pricing

A bank buys 1000 European put options on a $10 non-dividend paying stock at a strike of $12. The bank wishes to hedge this exposure. The bank can trade the underlying stocks and European call options with a strike price of 7 on the same stock with the same maturity. Details of the call and put options are given in the table below. Each call and put option is on a single stock.

European Options on a Non-dividend Paying Stock
Description	Symbol	Put Values	Call Values
Spot price ($)	##S_0##	10	10
Strike price ($)	##K_T##	12	7
Risk free cont. comp. rate (pa)	##r##	0.05	0.05
Standard deviation of the stock's cont. comp. returns (pa)	##\sigma##	0.4	0.4
Option maturity (years)	##T##	1	1
Option price ($)	##p_0## or ##c_0##	2.495350486	3.601466138
##N[d_1]##	##\partial c/\partial S##		0.888138405
##N[d_2]##	##N[d_2]##		0.792946442
##-N[-d_1]##	##\partial p/\partial S##	-0.552034778
##N[-d_2]##	##N[-d_2]##	0.207053558
Gamma	##\Gamma = \partial^2 c/\partial S^2## or ##\partial^2 p/\partial S^2##	0.098885989	0.047577422
Theta	##\Theta = \partial c/\partial T## or ##\partial p/\partial T##	0.348152078	0.672379961

 

Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

(a) If the underlying stock price suddenly rose by $0.01, the put option price would be expected to fall by less than $0.00552034777953178.

(b) If the underlying stock price suddenly fell by $0.01, the put option price would be expected to rise by more than $0.00552034777953178.

(c) If the underlying stock price suddenly rose by $0.01, the call option price would be expected to rise by more than $0.00888138404936379.

(d) To Delta hedge the 1000 long put options, long 552.0348 stocks.

(e) To Delta and Gamma hedge the 1000 long put options, long 2078.4226 call options and short 2397.9617 stocks.

Question 790  mean and median returns, return distribution, arithmetic and geometric averages, continuously compounding rate, log-normal distribution, VaR, confidence interval

A risk manager has identified that their hedge fund’s continuously compounded portfolio returns are normally distributed with a mean of 10% pa and a standard deviation of 30% pa. The hedge fund’s portfolio is currently valued at $100 million. Assume that there is no estimation error in these figures and that the normal cumulative density function at 1.644853627 is 95%.

Which of the following statements is NOT correct? All answers are rounded to the nearest dollar.

(a) Future portfolio values have a log-normal distribution. The mean (expected or arithmetic average) portfolio value in one year is $115,603,957.

(b) The median (50th percentile) portfolio value in one year is $115,603,957.

(c) The 90% confidence interval of continuously compounded portfolio returns over the next year ##(r_{0 \rightarrow 1})## is ##-39.3456088\% < r_{0 \rightarrow 1} < 59.3456088\%##.

(d) The 90% confidence interval of portfolio values in one year ##(V_1)## is ##\$67,472,095 < V_1 < \$181,023,395##.

(e) The annual 95% relative VaR is $48,131,863 and the absolute VaR is $32,527,905.

Question 835  VaR, no explanation

A company has a 95% daily Value at Risk (VaR) of $1 million. The units of this VaR are in:

(a) Dollars ($).

(b) Dollars per day ($/day).

(c) Dollars per day squared ($/day^2).

(d) Dollars squared per day ($^2/day).

(e) Dollars squared per day squared ($^2/day^2).

Question 836  VaR, no explanation

The 95% daily VaR corresponds to the result on the:

(a) Best day of the 5% worst days’ results.

(b) Worst day of the 5% worst days’ results.

(c) Best day of the 5% best days’ results.

(d) Worst day of the 5% best days’ results.

(e) Best day of the 95% worst days’ results.

Question 205  depreciation tax shield, CFFA

There are a number of ways that assets can be depreciated. Generally the government's tax office stipulates a certain method.

But if it didn't, what would be the ideal way to depreciate an asset from the perspective of a businesses owner?

(a) 'Straight line' or 'prime cost' depreciation, which allocates equal depreciation expenses over each year of the asset's life.

(b) 'Diminishing value' or 'reducing balance' depreciation, which allocates more depreciation expense at the start of the asset's life and less towards the end.

(c) No depreciation at all, so the asset is always kept on the books as being the same value that it was bought for. The asset will cause no depreciation expense in any year.

(d) Allocating all of the depreciation expense to the final year of the asset's life.

(e) Allocating all of the depreciation expense to the first year of the asset's life. Accountants would call this 'expensing' the asset, rather than 'capitalising' it and depreciating it slowly.