Fight Finance

Question 102  option, hedging

A company runs a number of slaughterhouses which supply hamburger meat to McDonalds. The company is afraid that live cattle prices will increase over the next year, even though there is widespread belief in the market that they will be stable. What can the company do to hedge against the risk of increasing live cattle prices? Which statement(s) are correct?

(i) buy call options on live cattle.

(ii) buy put options on live cattle.

(iii) sell call options on live cattle.

Select the most correct response:

(a) Only (i) is true.

(b) Only (ii) is true.

(c) Only (iii) is true.

(d) Only (i) and (ii) is true.

(e) All statements (i), (ii) and (iii) are true.

Question 124  option, hedging

You operate a cattle farm that supplies hamburger meat to the big fast food chains. You buy a lot of grain to feed your cattle, and you sell the fully grown cattle on the livestock market.

You're afraid of adverse movements in grain and livestock prices. What options should you buy to hedge your exposures in the grain and cattle livestock markets?

Select the most correct response:

(a) Buy calls on grain, buy calls on cattle livestock.

(b) Buy calls on grain, buy puts on cattle livestock.

(c) Buy puts on grain, buy calls on cattle livestock.

(d) Buy puts on grain, buy puts on cattle livestock.

(e) Statements (a) and (d) are both correct.

Question 689  future, hedging

An equity index fund manager controls a USD1 billion diversified equity portfolio with a beta of 1.3. The equity manager fears that a global recession will begin in the next year, causing equity prices to tumble. The market does not think that this will happen. If the fund manager wishes to reduce her portfolio beta to 0.5, how many S&P500 futures should she sell?

The US market equity index is the S&P500. One year CME futures on the S&P500 currently trade at 2,062 points and the spot price is 2,091 points. Each point is worth $250. How many one year S&P500 futures contracts should the fund manager sell?

(a) 970

(b) 1,530

(c) 1,552

(d) 2,487

(e) 2,522

Question 692  future, hedging, no explanation

The standard deviation of monthly changes in the spot price of corn is 50 cents per bushel. The standard deviation of monthly changes in the futures price of corn is 40 cents per bushel. The correlation between the spot price of corn and the futures price of corn is 0.9.

It is now March. A corn chip manufacturer is committed to buying 250,000 bushels of corn in May. The spot price of corn is 381 cents per bushel and the June futures price is 399 cents per bushel.

The corn chip manufacturer wants to use the June corn futures contracts to hedge his risk. Each futures contract is for the delivery of 5,000 bushels of corn. One bushel is about 127 metric tons.

How many corn futures should the corn chip manufacturer buy to hedge his risk? Round your answer to the nearest whole number of contracts. Remember to tail the hedge.

(a) 34

(b) 48

(c) 52

(d) 54

(e) 59

Question 641  future, no explanation

Which of the below formulas gives the payoff at maturity ##(f_T)## from being long a future? Let the underlying asset price at maturity be ##S_T## and the locked-in futures price be ##K_T##.

(a) ##f_{LF,T}=S_T+K_T##

(b) ##f_{LF,T}=-S_T-K_T##

(c) ##f_{LF,T}=S_T-K_T##

(d) ##f_{LF,T}=K_T-S_T##

(e) ##f_{LF,T}=S_T##

Question 651  future

Which of the following statements about futures is NOT correct?

(a) Futures quotes displayed on the exchange change continuously.

(b) Futures prices written in existing futures contracts are fixed, they do not change since they’re written in the legal contract.

(c) One year futures quotes equal the market’s expectation of the underlying asset price in one year. For this reason futures markets are a good predictor of the underlying asset prices.

(d) Futures prices can be calculated based on the spot price of the underlying asset compounded forward at the total opportunity cost of capital, less any storage costs and plus any income yields such as dividends.

(e) The futures price quote and the underlying asset's spot price will converge over time. At the future's expiry they’ll be equal.

Question 642  future, no explanation

Which of the below formulas gives the payoff at maturity ##(f_T)## from being short a future? Let the underlying asset price at maturity be ##S_T## and the locked-in futures price be ##K_T##.

(a) ##f_{SF,T}=S_T+K_T##

(b) ##f_{SF,T}=-S_T-K_T##

(c) ##f_{SF,T}=S_T-K_T##

(d) ##f_{SF,T}=K_T-S_T##

(e) ##f_{SF,T}=S_T##

Question 644  future, no explanation

A trader sells one crude oil futures contract on the CME expiring in one year with a locked-in futures price of $38.94 per barrel. The crude oil spot price is $40.33. If the trader doesn’t close out her contract before expiry then in one year she will have the:

(a) Obligation to buy the underlying oil at $38.94 per barrel.

(b) Obligation to sell the underlying oil at $38.94 per barrel.

(c) Right to buy the underlying oil at $38.94 per barrel if she wants.

(d) Right to sell the underlying oil at $38.94 per barrel if she wants.

(e) Obligation to buy the underlying oil $38.94 per barrel if the counter party chooses to sell it.

Question 643  future, no explanation

A trader buys one crude oil futures contract on the CME expiring in one year with a locked-in futures price of $38.94 per barrel. If the trader doesn’t close out her contract before expiry then in one year she will have the:

(a) Obligation to buy the underlying oil at $38.94 per barrel.

(b) Obligation to sell the underlying oil at $38.94 per barrel.

(c) Right to buy the underlying oil at $38.94 per barrel if she wants.

(d) Right to sell the underlying oil at $38.94 per barrel if she wants.

(e) Obligation to buy the underlying oil $38.94 per barrel if her counter party chooses to sell it.

Question 589  future, contango, market efficiency

In general, stock prices tend to rise. What does this mean for futures on equity?

(a) Equity futures prices tend to be higher than spot prices. This is called contango.

(b) Equity futures prices tend to be equal to spot prices.

(c) Equity futures are generally under-priced.

(d) Equity futures are generally over-priced.

(e) Long equity futures traders tend to make more money than short equity futures traders.

Question 595  future, continuously compounding rate

A 2-year futures contract on a stock paying a continuous dividend yield of 3% pa was bought when the underlying stock price was $10 and the risk free rate was 10% per annum with continuous compounding. Assume that investors are risk-neutral, so the stock's total required return is the risk free rate.

Find the forward price ##(F_2)## and value of the contract ##(V_0)## initially. Also find the value of the contract in 6 months ##(V_{0.5})## if the stock price rose to $12.

(a) ##F_2=11.5027, V_0=0, V_{0.5}=1.5715##

(b) ##F_2=11.5027, V_0=0, V_{0.5}=1.8258##

(c) ##F_2=12.9693, V_0=0, V_{0.5}=1.3218##

(d) ##F_2=12.9693, V_0=0, V_{0.5}=1.3896##

(e) ##F_2=12.9693, V_0=0, V_{0.5}=1.6144##

Question 597  future, continuously compounding rate

A stock is expected to pay a dividend of $5 per share in 1 month and $5 again in 7 months.

The stock price is $100, and the risk-free rate of interest is 10% per annum with continuous compounding. The yield curve is flat. Assume that investors are risk-neutral.

An investor has just taken a short position in a one year forward contract on the stock.

Find the forward price ##(F_1)## and value of the contract ##(V_0)## initially. Also find the value of the short futures contract in 6 months ##(V_\text{0.5, SF})## if the stock price fell to $90.

(a) ##F_1=110.5171, V_0=0, V_\text{0.5, SF}=14.7829##

(b) ##F_1=110.5171, V_0=0, V_\text{0.5, SF}=15.1271##

(c) ##F_1=99.8244, V_0=0, V_\text{0.5, SF}=14.7829##

(d) ##F_1=99.8244, V_0=0, V_\text{0.5, SF}=20.5171##

(e) ##F_1=99.8244, V_0=0, V_\text{0.5, SF}=9.9144##

Question 590  future, market efficiency

Which of the following statements about futures contracts on shares is NOT correct, assuming that markets are efficient?

When an equity future is first negotiated (at t=0):

(a) The futures price quote ##(F_T)## is 'fair'. It's neither over- nor under-priced to the long or short trader.

(b) The futures price quote ##(F_T)## equals the expected underlying asset price at maturity.

(c) The futures price quote ##(F_0)## is initially zero.

(d) The value of the future ##(V_0)## is initially zero to both the long and short trader.

(e) If the value of the future ##(V_0)## rises for the long trader, it must have fallen for the short trader, and vice versa.

Question 594  future, continuously compounding rate

The current gold price is $700, gold storage costs are 2% pa and the risk free rate is 10% pa, both with continuous compounding.

What should be the 3 year gold futures price?

(a) $758.30

(b) $773.62

(c) $889.87

(d) $944.90

(e) $1,003.33

Question 650  future, closing out future contract

In February a company sold one December 40,000 pound (about 18 metric tons) lean hog futures contract. It closed out its position in May.

The spot price was $0.68 per pound in February. The December futures price was $0.70 per pound when the trader entered into the contract in February, $0.60 when he closed out his position in May, and $0.55 when the contract matured in December.

What was the total profit?

(a) $2,000

(b) $3,200

(c) $4,000

(d) $5,200

(e) $6,000

Question 686  future

Which of the following statements about futures is NOT correct?

(a) Buyers of futures are required to pay an initial margin at the start.

(b) Futures are a zero-sum game in the sense that the winner gains at the expense of the loser.

(c) Buyers of futures have to pay the futures price at the start.

(d) Buyers of futures do not care about the credit risk of the original future seller since the contract is novated by the exchange.

(e) Speculators who sell futures hope that the underlying asset price falls.

Question 684  future, arbitrage, no explanation

An equity index stands at 100 points and the one year equity futures price is 102.

The equity index is expected to have a dividend yield of 4% pa. Assume that investors are risk-neutral so their total required return on the shares is the same as the risk free Treasury bond yield which is 10% pa. Both are given as discrete effective annual rates.

Assuming that the equity index is fairly priced, an arbitrageur would recognise that the equity futures are:

(a) Under priced and should be bought.

(b) Under priced and should be sold.

(c) Over priced and should be bought.

(d) Over priced and should be sold.

(e) Fairly priced and an arbitrageur would be indifferent to buying or selling them.

Question 685  future, arbitrage, no explanation

An equity index stands at 100 points and the one year equity futures price is 107.

The equity index is expected to have a dividend yield of 3% pa. Assume that investors are risk-neutral so their total required return on the shares is the same as the risk free Treasury bond yield which is 10% pa. Both are given as discrete effective annual rates.

Assuming that the equity index is fairly priced, an arbitrageur would recognise that the equity futures are:

(a) Under priced and should be bought.

(b) Under priced and should be sold.

(c) Over priced and should be bought.

(d) Over priced and should be sold.

(e) Fairly priced and an arbitrageur would be indifferent to buying or selling them.

Question 916  future, future valuation

A stock is expected to pay its semi-annual dividend of $1 per share for the foreseeable future. The current stock price is $40 and the continuously compounded risk free rate is 3% pa for all maturities. An investor has just taken a long position in a 12-month futures contract on the stock. The last dividend payment was exactly 4 months ago. Therefore the next $1 dividend is in 2 months, and the $1 dividend after is 8 months from now. Which of the following statements about this scenario is NOT correct?

(a) The initial futures price would be $39.1828.

(b) The initial value of the futures contract would be zero.

(c) If the spot price rose to $45 at month 1, then the value of the futures contract would be positive $4.8999 at that time.

(d) If the spot price fell to $35 at month 3, then the value of the futures contract would be negative $4.1828 at that time.

(e) If the spot price remained at $40 until maturity, then the value of the futures contract would be positive $0.8172 at that time.

Question 275  derivative terminology, future

The 'futures price' in a futures contract is paid at the start when the futures contract is agreed to. or ?

Question 274  derivative terminology, option

The 'option price' in an option contract is paid at the start when the option contract is agreed to. or ?

Question 276  derivative terminology, option

The 'option strike price' in an option contract, also known as the exercise price, is paid at the start when the option contract is agreed to. or ?

Question 305  option, short selling, speculation

You believe that the price of a share will fall significantly very soon, but the rest of the market does not. The market thinks that the share price will remain the same. Assuming that your prediction will soon be true, which of the following trades is a bad idea? In other words, which trade will NOT make money or prevent losses?

(a) Sell all existing stock that you own.

(b) Short sell the stock.

(c) Buy put options on the stock.

(d) Sell put options on the stock.

(e) Sell call options on the stock.

Question 334  option

Which option position has the possibility of unlimited potential losses?

(a) Long call options.

(b) Short call options.

(c) Long put options.

(d) Short put options.

(e) No option positions have the possibility of unlimited potential losses.

Question 585  option

A man just sold a call option to his counterparty, a lady. The man has just now:

(a) Bought the right to buy the underlying asset from her at maturity if he wants.

(b) Bought the right to sell the underlying asset to her at maturity if he wants.

(c) Sold the right that allows her to buy the underlying asset from him at maturity if she wants.

(d) Sold the right that allows her to sell the underlying asset to him at maturity if she wants.

(e) Sold a contract that obliges him to buy the underlying asset from her at maturity if she wants.

Question 399  option, no explanation

A European call option will mature in ##T## years with a strike price of ##K## dollars. The underlying asset has a price of ##S## dollars.

What is an expression for the payoff at maturity ##(f_T)## in dollars from owning (being long) the call option?

(a) ##\max(S_T - K, 0)##.

(b) ##\max(S_T - K, K)##.

(c) ##\max(K-S_T, 0)##.

(d) ##\max(K-S_T, K)##.

(e) ##\min(K-S_T, 0)##.

Question 400  option, no explanation

A European put option will mature in ##T## years with a strike price of ##K## dollars. The underlying asset has a price of ##S## dollars.

What is an expression for the payoff at maturity ##(f_T)## in dollars from owning (being long) the put option?

(a) ##\max(S_T - K, 0)##.

(b) ##\max(S_T - K, K)##.

(c) ##\max(K-S_T, 0)##.

(d) ##\max(K-S_T, K)##.

(e) ##\min(K-S_T, 0)##.

Question 430  option, no explanation

A European call option will mature in ##T## years with a strike price of ##K## dollars. The underlying asset has a price of ##S## dollars.

What is an expression for the payoff at maturity ##(f_T)## in dollars from having written (being short) the call option?

(a) ##\min(S_T - K, 0)##.

(b) ##-\min(S_T - K, 0)##.

(c) ##\max(K-S_T, 0)##.

(d) ##-\max(K-S_T, 0)##.

(e)##-\max(S_T-K, 0)##.

Question 431  option, no explanation

A European put option will mature in ##T## years with a strike price of ##K## dollars. The underlying asset has a price of ##S## dollars.

What is an expression for the payoff at maturity ##(f_T)## in dollars from having written (being short) the put option?

(a) ##\max(S_T - K, 0)##.

(b) ##-\max(S_T - K, 0)##.

(c) ##\max(K-S_T, 0)##.

(d) ##-\max(K-S_T, 0)##.

(e) ##-\min(S_T - K, 0)##.

Question 432  option, option intrinsic value, no explanation

An American style call option with a strike price of ##K## dollars will mature in ##T## years. The underlying asset has a price of ##S## dollars.

What is an expression for the current intrinsic value in dollars from owning (being long) the American style call option? Note that the intrinsic value of an option does not subtract the premium paid to buy the option.

(a) ##\min(S_0 - K, 0)##.

(b) ##\min(K-S_0, 0)##.

(c) ##\max(S_0-K, 0)##.

(d) ##\max(K-S_0, 0)##.

(e) ##\max(K, S_0)##.

Question 586  option

Which one of the following statements about option contracts is NOT correct?

(a) Option premium is another name for option price.

(b) An option contract's price is always changing.

(c) Strike price is another name for exercise price.

(d) An option contract's strike price is always changing.

(e) Call and put option premiums are paid at the start when the option is bought. Call option exercise prices are paid when they are exercised, usually at maturity.

Question 587  option

Which of the following statements about option contracts is NOT correct? For every:

(a) Long call option there must be a short call option.

(b) Long put option there must be a short put option.

(c) Long option there must be a short option.

(d) Call option there must be a put option.

(e) Option trader who gains there must be one or more option traders who lose.

Question 588  option

If trader A has sold the right that allows counterparty B to buy the underlying asset from him at maturity if counterparty B wants then trader A is:

(a) Long a call option.

(b) Long a put option.

(c) Short a call option.

(d) Short a put option.

(e) Neither long or short a call or a put option.

Question 591  short selling, future, option

After doing extensive fundamental analysis of a company, you believe that their shares are overpriced and will soon fall significantly. The market believes that there will be no such fall.

Which of the following strategies is NOT a good idea, assuming that your prediction is true?

(a) Sell any of the firm's shares that you already own.

(b) Short-sell the firm's shares.

(c) Sell futures written on the shares.

(d) Buy put options written on the shares.

(e) Buy call options written on the shares.

Question 636  option, option payoff at maturity, no explanation

Which of the below formulas gives the payoff ##(f)## at maturity ##(T)## from being long a call option? Let the underlying asset price at maturity be ##S_T## and the exercise price be ##X_T##.

(a) ##f_{LC,T}=max⁡(S_T-X_T,0)##

(b) ##f_{LC,T}=max⁡(X_T-S_T,0)##

(c) ##f_{LC,T}=-max⁡(S_T-X_T,0)##

(d) ##f_{LC,T}=-max⁡(X_T-S_T,0)##

(e) ##f_{LC,T}=min⁡(X_T-S_T,0)##

Question 637  option, option payoff at maturity, no explanation

Which of the below formulas gives the payoff ##(f)## at maturity ##(T)## from being short a call option? Let the underlying asset price at maturity be ##S_T## and the exercise price be ##X_T##.

(a) ##f_{SC,T}=max⁡(S_T-X_T,0)##

(b) ##f_{SC,T}=max⁡(X_T-S_T,0)##

(c) ##f_{SC,T}=-max⁡(S_T-X_T,0)##

(d) ##f_{SC,T}=-max⁡(X_T-S_T,0)##

(e) ##f_{SC,T}=min⁡(X_T-S_T,0)##

Question 638  option, option payoff at maturity, no explanation

Which of the below formulas gives the payoff ##(f)## at maturity ##(T)## from being long a put option? Let the underlying asset price at maturity be ##S_T## and the exercise price be ##X_T##.

(a) ##f_{LP,T}=max⁡(S_T-X_T,0)##

(b) ##f_{LP,T}=max⁡(X_T-S_T,0)##

(c) ##f_{LP,T}=-max⁡(S_T-X_T,0)##

(d) ##f_{LP,T}=-max⁡(X_T-S_T,0)##

(e) ##f_{LP,T}=min⁡(X_T-S_T,0)##

Question 639  option, option payoff at maturity, no explanation

Which of the below formulas gives the payoff ##(f)## at maturity ##(T)## from being short a put option? Let the underlying asset price at maturity be ##S_T## and the exercise price be ##X_T##.

(a) ##f_{SP,T}=max⁡(S_T-X_T,0)##

(b) ##f_{SP,T}=max⁡(X_T-S_T,0)##

(c) ##f_{SP,T}=-max⁡(S_T-X_T,0)##

(d) ##f_{SP,T}=-max⁡(X_T-S_T,0)##

(e) ##f_{SP,T}=min⁡(X_T-S_T,0)##

Question 640  option, future, no explanation

Which one of the below option and futures contracts gives the possibility of potentially unlimited gains?

(a) Long call contracts.

(b) Short call contracts.

(c) Long put contracts.

(d) Short put contracts.

(e) Short future contracts.

Question 645  option, no explanation

A trader buys one crude oil European style call option contract on the CME expiring in one year with an exercise price of $44 per barrel for a price of $6.64. The crude oil spot price is $40.33. If the trader doesn’t close out her contract before maturity, then at maturity she will have the:

(a) Obligation to buy the underlying oil at $44 per barrel.

(b) Obligation to sell the underlying oil at $44 per barrel.

(c) Right to buy the underlying oil at $44 per barrel if she wants.

(d) Right to sell the underlying oil at $44 per barrel if she wants.

(e) Obligation to buy the underlying oil at $44 per barrel if her counter party chooses to sell it.

Question 675  option, option profit, no explanation

Which of the below formulas gives the profit ##(\pi)## from being long a call option? Let the underlying asset price at maturity be ##S_T##, the exercise price be ##X_T## and the option price be ##f_{LC,0}##. Note that ##S_T##, ##X_T## and ##f_{LC,0}## are all positive numbers.

(a) ##\pi_{LC}=max⁡(S_T-X_T,0) + f_{LC,0}##

(b) ##\pi_{LC}=max⁡(X_T-S_T,0) + f_{LC,0}##

(c) ##\pi_{LC}=-max⁡(S_T-X_T,0) + f_{LC,0}##

(d) ##\pi_{LC}=max⁡(X_T-S_T,0) - f_{LC,0}##

(e) ##\pi_{LC}=max(S_T-X_T,0) - f_{LC,0}##

Question 676  option, option profit, no explanation

Which of the below formulas gives the profit ##(\pi)## from being short a call option? Let the underlying asset price at maturity be ##S_T##, the exercise price be ##X_T## and the option price be ##f_{LC,0}##. Note that ##S_T##, ##X_T## and ##f_{LC,0}## are all positive numbers.

(a) ##\pi_{SC}=max⁡(S_T-X_T,0) + f_{LC,0}##

(b) ##\pi_{SC}=-max⁡(S_T-X_T,0) + f_{LC,0}##

(c) ##\pi_{SC}=max⁡(X_T-S_T,0) + f_{LC,0}##

(d) ##\pi_{SC}=-max⁡(S_T-X_T,0) - f_{LC,0}##

(e) ##\pi_{SC}=-max(X_T-S_T,0) - f_{LC,0}##

Question 677  option, option profit, no explanation

Which of the below formulas gives the profit ##(\pi)## from being long a put option? Let the underlying asset price at maturity be ##S_T##, the exercise price be ##X_T## and the option price be ##f_{LP,0}##. Note that ##S_T##, ##X_T## and ##f_{LP,0}## are all positive numbers.

(a) ##\pi_{LP}=-max⁡(S_T-X_T,0) - f_{LP,0}##

(b) ##\pi_{LP}=-max⁡(X_T-S_T,0) + f_{LP,0}##

(c) ##\pi_{LP}=max⁡(S_T-X_T,0) - f_{LP,0}##

(d) ##\pi_{LP}=max⁡(X_T-S_T,0) + f_{LP,0}##

(e) ##\pi_{LP}=max(X_T-S_T,0) - f_{LP,0}##

Question 678  option, option profit, no explanation

Which of the below formulas gives the profit ##(\pi)## from being short a put option? Let the underlying asset price at maturity be ##S_T##, the exercise price be ##X_T## and the option price be ##f_{LP,0}##. Note that ##S_T##, ##X_T## and ##f_{LP,0}## are all positive numbers.

(a) ##\pi_{SP}=-max⁡(S_T-X_T,0) - f_{LP,0}##

(b) ##\pi_{SP}=-max⁡(X_T-S_T,0) + f_{LP,0}##

(c) ##\pi_{SP}=max⁡(S_T-X_T,0) - f_{LP,0}##

(d) ##\pi_{SP}=max⁡(X_T-S_T,0) + f_{LP,0}##

(e) ##\pi_{SP}=max(X_T-S_T,0) - f_{LP,0}##

Question 679  option, no explanation

A trader sells one crude oil European style call option contract on the CME expiring in one year with an exercise price of $44 per barrel for a price of $6.64. The crude oil spot price is $40.33. If the trader doesn’t close out her contract before maturity, then at maturity she will have the:

(a) Obligation to buy the underlying oil at $44 per barrel.

(b) Obligation to sell the underlying oil at $44 per barrel.

(c) Right to sell the underlying oil at $44 per barrel if she wants.

(d) Obligation to buy the underlying oil $44 per barrel if the counterparty chooses to sell it.

(e) Obligation to sell the underlying oil at $44 per barrel if the counterparty chooses to buy it.

Question 680  option, no explanation

A trader buys one crude oil European style put option contract on the CME expiring in one year with an exercise price of $44 per barrel for a price of $6.64. The crude oil spot price is $40.33. If the trader doesn’t close out her contract before maturity, then at maturity she will have the:

(a) Obligation to sell the underlying oil at $44 per barrel.

(b) Right to buy the underlying oil at $44 per barrel if she wants.

(c) Right to sell the underlying oil at $44 per barrel if she wants.

(d) Obligation to buy the underlying oil $44 per barrel if the counterparty chooses to sell it.

(e) Obligation to sell the underlying oil at $44 per barrel if the counterparty chooses to buy it.

Question 687  option, no explanation

Which of the following statements about call options is NOT correct?

(a) Buyers of call options are required to pay an initial margin at the start.

(b) Call options are a zero-sum game in the sense that the winner gains at the expense of the loser.

(c) Buyers of call options have to pay the option price at the start.

(d) Buyers of call options do not care about the credit risk of the original call option seller since the contract is novated by the exchange.

(e) Speculators who sell call options hope that the underlying asset price falls.

Question 690  option

A trader just bought a European style put option on CBA stock. The current option premium is $2, the exercise price is $75, the option matures in one year and the spot CBA stock price is $74.

Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

(a) The long trader paid the option premium at the start.

(b) The option is 'out of the money' at the start.

(c) The long trader wishes for the underlying CBA stock price to fall.

(d) The option can only be exercised at maturity.

(e) If the stock price falls to $60 at maturity, then the long trader can buy the underlying stock for $60, exercise his option to sell the underlying stock to his counterparty for $75, making a payoff at maturity of $15 and a profit of $13.

Question 435  option, no explanation

Will the price of a call option on equity or if the standard deviation of returns (risk) of the underlying shares becomes higher?

Question 436  option, no explanation

Will the price of an out-of-the-money put option on equity or if the standard deviation of returns (risk) of the underlying shares becomes higher?

Question 437  option, no explanation

Two call options are exactly the same, but one matures in one year and the other matures in two years. Which option would you expect to have the higher price, the option which matures or , or should they have the price?

Question 438  option, no explanation

Two put options are exactly the same, but one matures in one year and the other matures in two years. Which option would you expect to have the higher price, the option which matures or , or should they have the price?

Question 439  option, no explanation

Two call options are exactly the same, but one has a low and the other has a high exercise price. Which option would you expect to have the higher price, the option with the or exercise price, or should they have the price?

Question 440  option, no explanation

Two put options are exactly the same, but one has a low and the other has a high exercise price. Which option would you expect to have the higher price, the option with the or exercise price, or should they have the price?

Question 584  option, option payoff at maturity, option profit

Which of the following statements about European call options on non-dividend paying stocks is NOT correct?

(a) A long call option's payoff at maturity is equal to the maximum of zero or the underlying asset price at maturity minus the exercise price. ##f_\text{T,LC} = max(S_T - K, 0)##

(b) A long call option's profit is equal to the payoff at maturity less the initial option price. ##\pi_\text{LC} = max(S_T - K, 0) - c_0##

(c) The breakeven price is the underlying asset price at which a long option contract gives zero profit. When ##max(S_T - K, 0) - c_0 = 0##, then ##S_T = K+c_0##.

(d) A call option's break-even price is always more than its strike price.

(e) Call options should only be exercised at maturity if the underlying asset price is above the break-even price.

Question 103  option

Below are 4 option graphs. Note that the y-axis is payoff at maturity (T). What options do they depict? List them in the order that they are numbered.

(a) 1: short call, 2: long call, 3: short put, 4: long put.

(b) 1: long call, 2: long put, 3: short call, 4: short put.

(c) 1: short put, 2: long put, 3: short call, 4: long call.

(d) 1: long put, 2: short put, 3: long call, 4: short call.

(e) 1: long put, 2: short call, 3: short put, 4: long call.

Question 122  option

You have just sold an 'in the money' 6 month European put option on the mining company BHP at an exercise price of $40 for a premium of $3.

Which of the following statements best describes your situation?

(a) You have bought the right to buy a BHP share for $40 in 6 months.

(b) You have bought the right to sell a BHP share for $40 in 6 months.

(c) You have bought the obligation to sell a BHP share for $40 in 6 months.

(d) You have sold the right that allows your counterparty to buy a BHP share from you for $40 in 6 months. This means that you have the obligation to sell a BHP share to your counterparty for $40 in 6 months if he wants to buy it.

(e) You have sold the right that allows your counterparty to sell a BHP share to you for $40 in 6 months. This means that you have the obligation to buy a BHP share from your counterparty for $40 in 6 months if he wants to sell it.

Question 271  CAPM, option, risk, systematic risk, systematic and idiosyncratic risk

All things remaining equal, according to the capital asset pricing model, if the systematic variance of an asset increases, its required return will increase and its price will decrease.
If the idiosyncratic variance of an asset increases, its price will be unchanged.

What is the relationship between the price of a call or put option and the total, systematic and idiosyncratic variance of the underlying asset that the option is based on? Select the most correct answer.

Call and put option prices increase when the:

(a) Systematic variance of the underlying asset increases.

(b) Idiosyncratic variance of the underlying asset increases.

(c) Systematic, idiosyncratic or total variance of the underlying asset increases.

(d) Systematic variance of the underlying asset decreases.

(e) Systematic, idiosyncratic or total variance of the underlying asset decreases.

Question 671  future, forward, hedging

It's possible for both parties in a futures or forward contract to be hedging, so neither are speculating. or ?

Question 688  future, hedging

A pig farmer in the US is worried about the price of hogs falling and wants to lock in a price now. In one year the pig farmer intends to sell 1,000,000 pounds of hogs. Luckily, one year CME lean hog futures expire on the exact day that he wishes to sell his pigs. The futures have a notional principal of 40,000 pounds (about 18 metric tons) and currently trade at a price of 63.85 cents per pound. The underlying lean hogs spot price is 77.15 cents per pound. The correlation between the futures price and the underlying hogs price is one and the standard deviations are both 4 cents per pound. The initial margin is USD1,500 and the maintenance margin is USD1,200 per futures contract.

Which of the below statements is NOT correct?

(a) The pig farmer should sell futures to hedge against the danger of falling hog prices.

(b) The pig farmer should transact 30 lean hogs futures contracts with tailing since futures contracts require margins.

(c) The total initial margin that must be paid to the pig farmer’s futures broker is $45,000.

(d) If the futures price falls by more than 0.01175 cents per pound (rounded to 5 decimal places) then the pig farmer will receive a margin call from their broker.

(e) The future is trading in backwardation since the spot price exceeds the futures price, so the current basis is positive 13.30 cents.

Question 826  future, basis risk, hedging

On 1 February 2016 you were told that your refinery company will need to purchase oil on 1 July 2016. You were afraid of the oil price rising between now and then so you bought some August 2016 futures contracts on 1 February 2016 to hedge against changes in the oil price. On 1 February 2016 the oil price was $40 and the August 2016 futures price was $43.

It's now 1 July 2016 and oil price is $45 and the August 2016 futures price is $46. You bought the spot oil and closed out your futures position on 1 July 2016.

What was the effective price paid for the oil, taking into account basis risk? All spot and futures oil prices quoted above and below are per barrel.

(a) $37

(b) $42

(c) $44

(d) $45

(e) $48

Question 827  future, basis risk, no explanation

You intend to use futures on oil to hedge the risk of purchasing oil. There is no cross-hedging risk. Oil pays no dividends but it’s costly to store. Which of the following statements about basis risk in this scenario is NOT correct?

(a) Basis risk makes hedges more risky.

(b) Basis risk can only lead to worse than expected effective dollar prices.

(c) Basis risk only occurs when the future is closed out early, before it matures.

(d) ‘The basis’ is defined as the underlying spot price less the futures price quote ##(S_t - F_{t,T})##.

(e) The futures price of oil will tend to be higher than the spot price due to storage costs, so the basis will tend to be positive for hedgers who long futures contracts.

Question 930  arbitrage table, future, no explanation

A non-dividend paying stock has a current price of $20.

The risk free rate is 5% pa given as a continuously compounded rate.

A 2 year futures contract on the stock has a futures price of $24.

You suspect that the futures contract is mis-priced and would like to conduct a risk-free arbitrage that requires zero capital. Which of the following steps about arbitraging the situation is NOT correct?

(a) The futures are over-priced.

(b) One future should be sold.

(c) One stock should be sold.

(d) A 2 year zero coupon bond with a face value at maturity of $24 should be sold.

(e) The gain now will be $1.7161 per futures contract with zero cash flows in the future.

Question 250  NPV, Loan, arbitrage table

Your neighbour asks you for a loan of $100 and offers to pay you back $120 in one year.

You don't actually have any money right now, but you can borrow and lend from the bank at a rate of 10% pa. Rates are given as effective annual rates.

Assume that your neighbour will definitely pay you back. Ignore interest tax shields and transaction costs.

The Net Present Value (NPV) of lending to your neighbour is $9.09. Describe what you would do to actually receive a $9.09 cash flow right now with zero net cash flows in the future.

(a) Borrow $109.09 from the bank and lend $100 of it to your neighbour now.

(b) Borrow $100 from the bank and lend it to your neighbour now.

(c) Borrow $209.09 from the bank and lend $100 to your neighbour now.

(d) Borrow $120 from the bank and lend $100 of it to your neighbour now.

(e) Borrow $90.91 from the bank and lend it to your neighbour now.

Question 593  future, arbitrage table

The price of gold is currently $700 per ounce. The forward price for delivery in 1 year is $800. An arbitrageur can borrow money at 10% per annum given as an effective discrete annual rate. Assume that gold is fairly priced and the cost of storing gold is zero.

What is the best way to conduct an arbitrage in this situation? The best arbitrage strategy requires zero capital, has zero risk and makes money straight away. An arbitrageur should sell 1 forward on gold and:

(a) Borrow $636.3636 and use it to buy 0.9091 ounces of gold right now (t=0). Then pay back the loan with $700 at the end (t=1).

(b) Borrow $700 and use it to buy 1 ounce of gold right now (t=0). Then pay back the loan with $770 at the end (t=1).

(c) Borrow $727.2727 and use it to buy 1 ounce of gold right now (t=0). Then pay back the loan with $800 at the end (t=1).

(d) Borrow $800 and use it to buy 1.1039 ounces of gold right now (t=0). Then pay back the loan with $880 at the end (t=1).

(e) Borrow $880 and use it to buy 1 ounce of gold right now (t=0). Then pay back the loan with $800 at the end (t=1).

Question 863  option, binomial option pricing

A one year European-style call option has a strike price of $4. The option's underlying stock pays no dividends and currently trades at $5. The risk-free interest rate is 10% pa continuously compounded. Use a single step binomial tree to calculate the option price, assuming that the price could rise to $8 ##(u = 1.6)## or fall to $3.125 ##(d = 1/1.6)## in one year. The call option price now is:

(a) 1.336851119

(b) 1.782468159

(c) 1.836881513

(d) 1.969931972

(e) 2.030068028

Question 864  option, binomial option pricing

A one year European-style put option has a strike price of $4. The option's underlying stock pays no dividends and currently trades at $5. The risk-free interest rate is 10% pa continuously compounded. Use a single step binomial tree to calculate the option price, assuming that the price could rise to $8 ##(u = 1.6)## or fall to $3.125 ##(d = 1/1.6)## in one year. The put option price now is:

(a) 0.401817831

(b) 0.430922619

(c) 0.444077381

(d) 0.490781407

(e) 0.861038209

Question 837  option, put call parity

Being long a call and short a put which have the same exercise prices and underlying stock is equivalent to being:

(a) Long a stock only.

(b) Long a stock and long a bond.

(c) Long a stock and short a bond.

(d) Short a stock and long a bond.

(e) Short a stock and short a bond.

Question 838  option, put call parity

A stock, a call, a put and a bond are available to trade. The call and put options' underlying asset is the stock they and have the same strike prices, ##K_T##.

Being long the call and short the stock is equivalent to being:

(a) Long the put only.

(b) Long the put and long the bond.

(c) Long the put and short the bond.

(d) Short the put and long the bond.

(e) Short the put and short the bond.

Question 839  option, put call parity

A stock, a call, a put and a bond are available to trade. The call and put options' underlying asset is the stock they and have the same strike prices, ##K_T##.

You are currently long the stock. You want to hedge your long stock position without actually trading the stock. How would you do this?

(a) Long call, long put and long bond.

(b) Long call, long put and short bond.

(c) Long call, short put and short bond.

(d) Short call, short put and short bond.

(e) Short call, long put and short bond.

Question 832  option, Black-Scholes-Merton option pricing

A 12 month European-style call option with a strike price of $11 is written on a dividend paying stock currently trading at $10. The dividend is paid annually and the next dividend is expected to be $0.40, paid in 9 months. The risk-free interest rate is 5% pa continuously compounded and the standard deviation of the stock’s continuously compounded returns is 30 percentage points pa. The stock's continuously compounded returns are normally distributed. Using the Black-Scholes-Merton option valuation model, determine which of the following statements is NOT correct.

(a) ##d_1=-0.001033933##

(b) ##N[d_1]=0.447492432##

(c) ##d_2=-0.431999277 ##

(d) ##N[d_2]=0.332870969 ##

(e) ##c_0=0.81951217##

Question 865  option, Black-Scholes-Merton option pricing

A one year European-style call option has a strike price of $4.

The option's underlying stock currently trades at $5, pays no dividends and its standard deviation of continuously compounded returns is 47% pa.

The risk-free interest rate is 10% pa continuously compounded.

Use the Black-Scholes-Merton formula to calculate the option price. The call option price now is:

(a) $0.287263739

(b) $0.398141032

(c) $1.142227853

(d) $1.667914067

(e) $2.193600281

Question 824  option, no explanation

A put option written on a risky non-dividend paying stock will mature in one month. As is normal, assume that the option's exercise price is non-zero and positive ##(K>0)## and the stock has limited liability ##(S>0)##.

Which of the following statements is NOT correct? The put option's:

(a) Price must be greater than zero (p>0).

(b) Price can be greater than its exercise price (p>K).

(c) Price can be greater than the underlying asset's price (p>S).

(d) Exercise price can be greater than the underlying asset's price (K>S).

(e) Profit must be less than the payoff at maturity from the long trader’s perspective.

Question 866  option, Black-Scholes-Merton option pricing

A one year European-style put option has a strike price of $4.

The option's underlying stock currently trades at $5, pays no dividends and its standard deviation of continuously compounded returns is 47% pa.

The risk-free interest rate is 10% pa continuously compounded.

Use the Black-Scholes-Merton formula to calculate the option price. The put option price now is:

(a) $1.550849674

(b) $0.982509295

(c) $0.666414943

(d) $0.287263739

(e) $0.055037262

Question 794  option, Black-Scholes-Merton option pricing, option delta, no explanation

Which of the following quantities from the Black-Scholes-Merton option pricing formula gives the Delta of a European call option?

(a) ##N[d_1]##

(b) ##N[d_2]##

(c) ##−N[−d_1]##

(d) ##−N[−d_2]##

(e) ##N[−d_2]##

Where:

###d_1=\dfrac{\ln⁡[S_0/K]+(r+\sigma^2/2).T)}{\sigma.\sqrt{T}}### ###d_2=d_1-\sigma.\sqrt{T}=\dfrac{\ln⁡[S_0/K]+(r-\sigma^2/2).T)}{\sigma.\sqrt{T}}###

Question 795  option, Black-Scholes-Merton option pricing, option delta, no explanation

Which of the following quantities from the Black-Scholes-Merton option pricing formula gives the Delta of a European put option?

(a) ##N[d_1]##

(b) ##N[d_2]##

(c) ##−N[−d_1]##

(d) ##−N[−d_2]##

(e) ##N[−d_2]##

Question 796  option, Black-Scholes-Merton option pricing, option delta, no explanation

Which of the following quantities from the Black-Scholes-Merton option pricing formula gives the risk-neutral probability that a European call option will be exercised?

(a) ##N[d_1]##

(b) ##N[d_2]##

(c) ##−N[−d_1]##

(d) ##−N[−d_2]##

(e) ##N[−d_2]##

Question 797  option, Black-Scholes-Merton option pricing, option delta, no explanation

Which of the following quantities from the Black-Scholes-Merton option pricing formula gives the risk-neutral probability that a European put option will be exercised?

(a) ##N[d_1]##

(b) ##N[d_2]##

(c) ##−N[−d_1]##

(d) ##−N[−d_2]##

(e) ##N[−d_2]##

Question 903  option, Black-Scholes-Merton option pricing, option on stock index

A six month European-style call option on the S&P500 stock index has a strike price of 2800 points.

The underlying S&P500 stock index currently trades at 2700 points, has a continuously compounded dividend yield of 2% pa and a standard deviation of continuously compounded returns of 25% pa.

The risk-free interest rate is 5% pa continuously compounded.

Use the Black-Scholes-Merton formula to calculate the option price. The call option price now is:

(a) 162.83 points

(b) 220.56 points

(c) 226.43 points

(d) 230.91 points

(e) 317.45 points

Question 904  option, Black-Scholes-Merton option pricing, option on future on stock index

A six month European-style call option on six month S&P500 index futures has a strike price of 2800 points.

The six month futures price on the S&P500 index is currently at 2740.805274 points. The futures underlie the call option.

The S&P500 stock index currently trades at 2700 points. The stock index underlies the futures. The stock index's standard deviation of continuously compounded returns is 25% pa.

The risk-free interest rate is 5% pa continuously compounded.

Use the Black-Scholes-Merton formula to calculate the option price. The call option price now is:

(a) 226.43 points

(b) 220.56 points

(c) 176.21 points

(d) 162.83 points

(e) 128.92 points

Question 906  effective rate, return types, net discrete return, return distribution, price gains and returns over time

For an asset's price to double from say $1 to $2 in one year, what must its effective annual return be? Note that an effective annual return is also called a net discrete return per annum. If the price now is ##P_0## and the price in one year is ##P_1## then the effective annul return over the next year is:

###r_\text{effective annual} = \dfrac{P_1 - P_0}{P_0} = \text{NDR}_\text{annual}###

(a) 0%

(b) 30.102999566%

(c) 69.314718056%

(d) 100%

(e) 200%

Question 907  continuously compounding rate, return types, return distribution, price gains and returns over time

For an asset's price to double from say $1 to $2 in one year, what must its continuously compounded return ##(r_{CC})## be? If the price now is ##P_0## and the price in one year is ##P_1## then the continuously compounded return over the next year is:

###r_\text{CC annual} = \ln{\left[ \dfrac{P_1}{P_0} \right]} = \text{LGDR}_\text{annual}###

(a) 0%

(b) 30.102999566%

(c) 69.314718056%

(d) 100%

(e) 200%

Question 908  effective rate, return types, gross discrete return, return distribution, price gains and returns over time

For an asset's price to double from say $1 to $2 in one year, what must its gross discrete return (GDR) be? If the price now is ##P_0## and the price in one year is ##P_1## then the gross discrete return over the next year is:

###\text{GDR}_\text{annual} = \dfrac{P_1}{P_0}###

(a) 0%

(b) 30.102999566%

(c) 69.314718056%

(d) 100%

(e) 200%

Question 724  return distribution, mean and median returns

If a stock's future expected continuously compounded annual returns are normally distributed, what will be bigger, the stock's or continuously compounded annual return? Or would you expect them to be ?

Question 719  mean and median returns, return distribution, arithmetic and geometric averages, continuously compounding rate

A stock has an arithmetic average continuously compounded return (AALGDR) of 10% pa, a standard deviation of continuously compounded returns (SDLGDR) of 80% pa and current stock price of $1. Assume that stock prices are log-normally distributed. The graph below summarises this information and provides some helpful formulas.

In one year, what do you expect the median and mean prices to be? The answer options are given in the same order.

(a) P1median = $1.105171,   P1mean = $1.521962

(b) P1median = $1.1,             P1mean = $1.42

(c) P1median = $1.521962,   P1mean = $1.105171

(d) P1median = $0.802519,   P1mean = $1.105171

(e) P1median = $1.42,           P1mean = $1.1

Question 720  mean and median returns, return distribution, arithmetic and geometric averages, continuously compounding rate

A stock has an arithmetic average continuously compounded return (AALGDR) of 10% pa, a standard deviation of continuously compounded returns (SDLGDR) of 80% pa and current stock price of $1. Assume that stock prices are log-normally distributed.

In 5 years, what do you expect the median and mean prices to be? The answer options are given in the same order.

(a) $0.332871, $1.648721

(b) $8.16617, $1.648721

(c) $1.61051, $1.648721

(d) $1.61051, $5.773534

(e) $1.648721, $8.16617

Question 725  return distribution, mean and median returns

If a stock's future expected effective annual returns are log-normally distributed, what will be bigger, the stock's or effective annual return? Or would you expect them to be ?

Question 785  fixed for floating interest rate swap, non-intermediated swap

The below table summarises the borrowing costs confronting two companies A and B.

Bond Market Yields
	Fixed Yield to Maturity (%pa)	Floating Yield (%pa)
Firm A	3	L - 0.4
Firm B	5	L + 1

 

Firm A wishes to borrow at a floating rate and Firm B wishes to borrow at a fixed rate. Design a non-intermediated swap that benefits firm A only. What will be the swap rate?

(a) 2% pa.

(b) 2.6% pa.

(c) 3.4% pa.

(d) 4% pa.

(e) 4.6% pa.

Question 715  return distribution

If a variable, say X, is normally distributed with mean ##\mu## and variance ##\sigma^2## then mathematicians write ##X \sim \mathcal{N}(\mu, \sigma^2)##.

If a variable, say Y, is log-normally distributed and the underlying normal distribution has mean ##\mu## and variance ##\sigma^2## then mathematicians write ## Y \sim \mathbf{ln} \mathcal{N}(\mu, \sigma^2)##.

The below three graphs show probability density functions (PDF) of three different random variables Red, Green and Blue.

Select the most correct statement:

(a)##Red \sim \mathcal{N}(\mu, \sigma^2)##,   ##Green \sim \mathcal{N}(\mu, \sigma^2)##   and   ##Blue \sim \mathcal{N}(\mu, \sigma^2)##

(b) ##Red \sim \mathcal{N}(\mu, \sigma^2)##,   ##Green \sim \mathcal{N}(\mu, \sigma^2)##   and   ##Blue \sim \mathbf{ln} \mathcal{N}(\mu, \sigma^2)##

(c) ##Red \sim \mathcal{N}(\mu, \sigma^2)##,   ##Green \sim \mathbf{ln} \mathcal{N}(\mu, \sigma^2)##   and   ##Blue \sim \mathbf{ln} \mathcal{N}(\mu, \sigma^2)##

(d) ##Red \sim \mathbf{ln} \mathcal{N}(\mu, \sigma^2)##,   ##Green \sim \mathcal{N}(\mu, \sigma^2)##   and   ##Blue \sim \mathbf{ln} \mathcal{N}(\mu, \sigma^2)##

(e) ##Red \sim \mathbf{ln} \mathcal{N}(\mu, \sigma^2)##,   ##Green \sim \mathbf{ln} \mathcal{N}(\mu, \sigma^2)##   and   ##Blue \sim \mathbf{ln} \mathcal{N}(\mu, \sigma^2)##

Question 786  fixed for floating interest rate swap, intermediated swap

The below table summarises the borrowing costs confronting two companies A and B.

Bond Market Yields
	Fixed Yield to Maturity (%pa)	Floating Yield (%pa)
Firm A	3	L - 0.4
Firm B	5	L + 1

 

Firm A wishes to borrow at a floating rate and Firm B wishes to borrow at a fixed rate. Design an intermediated swap (which means there will actually be two swaps) that nets a bank 0.1% and shares the remaining swap benefits between Firms A and B equally. Which of the following statements about the swap is NOT correct?

(a) Firm A has the absolute advantage issuing bonds in both the fixed and floating coupon bond markets.

(b) Firm A has a comparative advantage issuing bonds in the fixed coupon bond market.

(c) Firm B has a comparative advantage issuing bonds in the floating coupon bond market.

(d) The swap rate between Firm A and the Bank would be 3.65% pa.

(e) The swap rate between Firm B and the Bank would be 3.55% pa.

Question 787  fixed for floating interest rate swap, intermediated swap

The below table summarises the borrowing costs confronting two companies A and B.

Bond Market Yields
	Fixed Yield to Maturity (%pa)	Floating Yield (%pa)
Firm A	2	L - 0.1
Firm B	2.5	L

 

Firm A wishes to borrow at a floating rate and Firm B wishes to borrow at a fixed rate. Design an intermediated swap (which means there will actually be two swaps) that nets a bank 0.15% and grants the remaining swap benefits to Firm A only. Which of the following statements about the swap is NOT correct?

(a) Firm A is less risky than Firm B. Firm A would have a higher credit rating.

(b) Firm A has the absolute advantage issuing bonds in both the fixed and floating coupon bond markets.

(c) Firm A has a comparative advantage issuing bonds in the floating coupon bond market.

(d) The net benefit from the swap available to Firm A is 0.25%.

(e) The swap rate between Firm B and the Bank would be 2.5% pa.

Question 670  fixed for floating interest rate swap

A company can invest funds in a five year project at LIBOR plus 50 basis points pa. The five-year swap rate is 4% pa. What fixed rate of interest can the company earn over the next five years by using the swap?

(a) 0% pa

(b) 3.5% pa

(c) 4% pa

(d) 4.5% pa

(e) 5% pa

Question 726  return distribution, mean and median returns

If a stock's expected future prices are log-normally distributed, what will be bigger, the stock's or future price? Or would you expect them to be ?

Question 818  option, future, no explanation

Which derivatives position has the possibility of unlimited potential gains?

(a) Long call.

(b) Short call.

(c) Long put.

(d) Short put.

(e) Short future.

Question 819  option, derivative terminology, no explanation

Which of the following terms about options are NOT synonyms?

(a) Option premium, option price.

(b) Strike price, exercise price.

(c) Payoff at maturity, profit.

(d) Maturity, expiry.

(e) Short, sell.

Question 820  option, future, no explanation

What derivative position are you exposed to if you have the obligation to sell the underlying asset at maturity, so you will definitely be forced to sell the underlying asset?

(a) Long a future.

(b) Short a future.

(c) Long a put.

(d) Short a put.

(e) Short a call.

Question 821  option, option profit, option payoff at maturity, no explanation

You just paid $4 for a 3 month European style call option on a stock currently priced at $47 with a strike price of $50. The stock’s next dividend will be $1 in 4 months’ time. Note that the dividend is paid after the option matures. Which of the below statements is NOT correct?

(a) You have the right to buy the underlying stock in 3 months’ time for a price of $50 if you want.

(b) If the dividend in 4 months were unexpectedly cancelled because the firm decided to re-invest its cash rather than pay it out then the 3 month call option price would be unaffected.

(c) If the stock price is $49 in 3 months then you wouldn’t exercise the ‘out of the money’ option.

(d) If the stock price is $51 in 3 months then you wouldn’t exercise or else you’ll incur a loss of $3.

(e) If the stock price is $57 in 3 months then you would exercise. Your profit would be $3 and payoff at maturity $7.

Question 822  option, sunk cost, no explanation

When does a European option's last-traded market price become a sunk cost?

(a) immediately after the option purchase date.

(b) After the option matures but only if it is exercised.

(c) After the option matures but only if it lapses and is not exercised.

(d) After the option matures, regardless of whether it is exercised or not.

(e) The option price is never a sunk cost.

Question 823  option, option payoff at maturity, option profit, no explanation

A European call option should only be exercised if:

(a) It's 'out of the money'.

(b) It will give a positive profit: ##-c_0 + max(S_T-K_T,0) > 0##.

(c) It will give a positive payoff at maturity: ##max(S_T-K_T,0) > 0##.

(d) The underlying asset price is below the option strike price: ##S_T < K_T##.

(e) The underlying asset price is above the break-even price.

Question 825  future, hedging, tailing the hedge, speculation, no explanation

An equity index fund manager controls a USD500 million diversified equity portfolio with a beta of 0.9. The equity manager expects a significant rally in equity prices next year. The market does not think that this will happen. If the fund manager wishes to increase his portfolio beta to 1.5, how many S&P500 futures should he buy?

The US market equity index is the S&P500. One year CME futures on the S&P500 currently trade at 2,155 points and the spot price is 2,180 points. Each point is worth $250.

The number of one year S&P500 futures contracts that the fund manager should buy is:

(a) 550

(b) 557

(c) 826

(d) 835

(e) 1392

Question 828  future, future valuation, no explanation

You bought a 1.5 year (18 month) futures contract on oil. Oil storage costs are 4% pa continuously compounded and oil pays no dividends. The futures contract is entered into when the oil price is $40 per barrel and the risk-free rate of interest is 10% per annum with continuous compounding.

Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

(a) The initial futures price is $49.3471.

(b) The initial value of the futures contract is zero.

(c) If the oil price falls to $35 per barrel in one year then the value of the futures contract at that time would be -$11.2334.

(d) If the oil price is still at $40 per barrel in one year then the value of the futures contract at that time would be zero.

(e) If the oil price rises to $45 per barrel in one year then the value of the futures contract at that time would be -$1.0314.

Question 829  option, future, delta, gamma, theta, no explanation

Below are some statements about futures and European-style options on non-dividend paying stocks. Assume that the risk free rate is always positive. Which of these statements is NOT correct? All other things remaining equal:

(a) As time elapses, call option prices always fall.

(b) As time elapses, put option prices always fall.

(c) The long future always has a zero Gamma.

(d) The more in-the-money the long call option is, the higher (more positive) is its Delta.

(e) The more in-the-money the long put option is, the lower (more negative) is its Delta.

Question 830  option, delta, gamma, no explanation

Below are some statements about European-style options on non-dividend paying stocks. Assume that the risk free rate is always positive. Which of these statements is NOT correct?

(a) A long call option always has a positive Delta.

(b) A long put option always has a negative Delta.

(c) A long stock always has a Delta of one.

(d) A long call option always has a positive Gamma.

(e) A long stock always has a Gamma of one.

Question 831  option, American option, no explanation

Which of the following statements about American-style options is NOT correct? American-style:

(a) Options are always worth more than or equal to equivalent European-style options.

(b) Call options on dividend-paying stocks should sometimes be exercised just before the dividend.

(c) Put options on dividend-paying stocks should sometimes be exercised just after the dividend.

(d) Call options should be exercised now if the intrinsic option value ##(S-K)## is greater than the expected present value of the option’s future payoffs.

(e) Put options should be exercised now if the intrinsic option value ##(K-S)## is less than the expected present value of the option’s future payoffs.

Question 833  option, delta, theta, standard deviation, no explanation

Which of the following statements about an option (either a call or put) and its underlying stock is NOT correct?

(a) The option’s expected future continuously compounded returns are always more than or equal to the underlying stock’s expected future continuously compounded returns.

(b) The option’s standard deviation of dollar price changes is always less than or equal to the underlying stock’s standard deviation of dollar price changes.

(c) The option’s standard deviation of continuously compounded returns are always less than or equal to the underlying stock’s standard deviation of continuously compounded returns.

(d) As time elapses and the maturity date of an option approaches, its price will fall, all other things remaining equal.

(e) If the underlying stock’s price rises by $0.01, the call option’s price will rise by less than $0.01 and the put option’s price will fall by less than $0.01.

Question 835  VaR, no explanation

A company has a 95% daily Value at Risk (VaR) of $1 million. The units of this VaR are in:

(a) Dollars ($).

(b) Dollars per day ($/day).

(c) Dollars per day squared ($/day^2).

(d) Dollars squared per day ($^2/day).

(e) Dollars squared per day squared ($^2/day^2).

Question 836  VaR, no explanation

The 95% daily VaR corresponds to the result on the:

(a) Best day of the 5% worst days’ results.

(b) Worst day of the 5% worst days’ results.

(c) Best day of the 5% best days’ results.

(d) Worst day of the 5% best days’ results.

(e) Best day of the 95% worst days’ results.

Question 717  return distribution

The below three graphs show probability density functions (PDF) of three different random variables Red, Green and Blue. Let ##P_1## be the unknown price of a stock in one year. ##P_1## is a random variable. Let ##P_0 = 1##, so the share price now is $1. This one dollar is a constant, it is not a variable.

Which of the below statements is NOT correct? Financial practitioners commonly assume that the shape of the PDF represented in the colour:

(a) Green is a stock's continuously compounded rate of return, also called the log gross discrete return. ##r_\text{cc} = \ln(P_1/P_0)##

(b) Blue is a stock's future price, ##P_1##

(c) Blue is a stock's gross discrete return. ##\text{GDR} = P_1/P_0##

(d) Blue is a stock's effective rate of return. ##r_\text{eff} = (P_1-P_0)/P_0##

(e) Red is a stock's net discrete return. ##\text{NDR} = \text{GDR}-1##

Question 716  return distribution

The below three graphs show probability density functions (PDF) of three different random variables Red, Green and Blue.

Which of the below statements is NOT correct?

(a)##-1 < \text{Red} < \infty## if Red is log-normally distributed.

(b) ##-2 < \text{Green} < 2## if Green is normally distributed.

(c) ##0 < \text{Blue} < \infty## if Blue is log-normally distributed.

(d) If the Green distribution is normal, then the mode = median = mean.

(e) If the Red and Blue distributions are log-normal, then the mode < median < mean.

Question 718  arithmetic and geometric averages

The symbol ##\text{GDR}_{0\rightarrow 1}## represents a stock's gross discrete return per annum over the first year. ##\text{GDR}_{0\rightarrow 1} = P_1/P_0##. The subscript indicates the time period that the return is mentioned over. So for example, ##\text{AAGDR}_{1 \rightarrow 3}## is the arithmetic average GDR measured over the two year period from years 1 to 3, but it is expressed as a per annum rate.

Which of the below statements about the arithmetic and geometric average GDR is NOT correct?

(a) Arithmetic average gross discrete return is ##\text{AAGDR}_{0\rightarrow T} = \dfrac{\text{GDR}_{0 \rightarrow 1}+\text{GDR}_{1\rightarrow 2}+...+\text{GDR}_{T-1 \rightarrow T}}{T}##

(b) Geometric average gross discrete return is ##\text{GAGDR}_{0\rightarrow T} = \dfrac{\text{GDR}_{0 \rightarrow 1} . \text{GDR}_{1\rightarrow 2} ... \text{GDR}_{T-1 \rightarrow T}}{T}##

(c) The geometric average gross discrete return can be quickly found using the first ##(P_0)## and last ##(P_T)## prices. ##\text{GAGDR}_{0\rightarrow T} = \left( \dfrac{P_T}{P_0} \right)^{1/T}##

(d) The arithmetic average is always bigger than or equal to the geometric average, ##\text{AAGDR} \ge \text{GAGDR}##.

(e) The arithmetic and geometric averages of returns will be equal if the variance of the stock's returns is zero.

Question 722  mean and median returns, return distribution, arithmetic and geometric averages, continuously compounding rate

Here is a table of stock prices and returns. Which of the statements below the table is NOT correct?

Price and Return Population Statistics
Time	Prices	LGDR	GDR	NDR
0	100
1	50	-0.6931	0.5	-0.5
2	100	0.6931	2	1
Arithmetic average		0	1.25	0.25
Arithmetic standard deviation		0.9802	1.0607	1.0607

 

(a) The geometric average of the gross discrete returns (GAGDR) equals 1 which is 100%.

(b) ##\text{GAGDR} = \exp \left( \text{AALGDR} \right)##. The GAGDR is equal to the natural exponent of the arithmetic average of the logarithms of the gross discrete returns (AALGDR).

(c) ##\text{GAGDR} = \left( P_T/P_0 \right)^{1/T}##. The GAGDR equals the ratio of the last and first prices raised to the power of the inverse of the number of time periods between them.

(d) ##\text{LGAGDR} = \text{AALGDR}##. This is always true, regardless of the distribution of the prices or returns and the number of return observations. The logarithm of the geometric average of the gross discrete returns (LGAGDR) is always equal to the arithmetic average of the logarithms of the gross discrete returns (AALGDR).

(e) ##\text{LAAGDR} = \text{AALGDR} + \text{SDLGDR}^2/2##. This is always true, regardless of the distribution of the prices or returns and the number of return observations. The logarithm of the arithmetic average of the gross discrete returns (LAAGDR) equals the arithmetic average of the logarithms of the gross discrete returns (AALGDR) plus half the variance of the LGDR's.

Question 857  DuPont formula, accounting ratio

The DuPont formula is:

###\dfrac{\text{Net Profit}}{\text{Sales}} \times \dfrac{\text{Sales}}{\text{Total Assets}} \times \dfrac{\text{Total Assets}}{\text{Owners' Equity}}###

Which of the following statements about the DuPont formula is NOT correct?

(a) The DuPont formula gives the book Return on Equity (ROE).

(b) The net profit to sales ratio is called the ‘gross profit margin’.

(c) The sales to total assets ratio is called the ‘total asset turnover’ ratio.

(d) The total assets to owners' equity ratio is called the ‘equity multiplier’.

(e) The equity multiplier and ROE will rise if the firm uses more leverage by replacing equity with debt.

Question 358  PE ratio, Multiples valuation

Estimate the Chinese bank ICBC's share price using a backward-looking price earnings (PE) multiples approach with the following assumptions and figures only. Note that the renminbi (RMB) is the Chinese currency, also known as the yuan (CNY).

• The 4 major Chinese banks ICBC, China Construction Bank (CCB), Bank of China (BOC) and Agricultural Bank of China (ABC) are comparable companies;
• ICBC 's historical earnings per share (EPS) is RMB 0.74;
• CCB's backward-looking PE ratio is 4.59;
• BOC 's backward-looking PE ratio is 4.78;
• ABC's backward-looking PE ratio is also 4.78;

Note: Figures sourced from Google Finance on 25 March 2014. Share prices are from the Shanghai stock exchange.

(a) RMB 6.4595

(b) RMB 6.3739

(c) RMB 6.3311

(d) RMB 3.4903

(e) RMB 3.3966

Question 348  PE ratio, Multiples valuation

Estimate the US bank JP Morgan's share price using a price earnings (PE) multiples approach with the following assumptions and figures only:

• The major US banks JP Morgan Chase (JPM), Citi Group (C) and Wells Fargo (WFC) are comparable companies;
• JP Morgan Chase's historical earnings per share (EPS) is $4.37;
• Citi Group's share price is $50.05 and historical EPS is $4.26;
• Wells Fargo's share price is $48.98 and historical EPS is $3.89.

Note: Figures sourced from Google Finance on 24 March 2014.

(a) $53.2353

(b) $53.1831

(c) $53.0995

(d) $26.5498

(e) $2.7849

Question 750  PE ratio, Multiples valuation

Itau Unibanco is a major listed bank in Brazil with a market capitalisation of equity equal to BRL 85.744 billion, EPS of BRL 3.96 and 2.97 billion shares on issue.

Banco Bradesco is another major bank with total earnings of BRL 8.77 billion and 2.52 billion shares on issue.

Estimate Banco Bradesco's current share price using a price-earnings multiples approach assuming that Itau Unibanco is a comparable firm.

Note that BRL is the Brazilian Real, their currency. Figures sourced from Google Finance on the market close of the BVMF on 24 July 2015.

(a) BRL 28.87

(b) BRL 25.372

(c) BRL 22.1

(d) BRL 21.653

(e) BRL 21.528

Question 347  PE ratio, Multiples valuation

Which of the following investable assets are NOT suitable for valuation using PE multiples techniques?

(a) Common equity in small private companies.

(b) Common equity in large private companies.

(c) Common equity in listed public companies.

(d) Fixed term bonds of listed public companies.

(e) Real estate.

Question 749  Multiples valuation, PE ratio, price to revenue ratio, price to book ratio, NPV

A real estate agent says that the price of a house in Sydney Australia is approximately equal to the gross weekly rent times 1000.

What type of valuation method is the real estate agent using?

(a) Price to EBITDA multiple.

(b) Price to book multiple.

(c) Price to earnings multiple.

(d) Price to revenue multiple.

(e) Discounted cash flow (DCF).

Question 463  PE ratio, Multiples valuation

Private equity firms are known to buy medium sized private companies operating in the same industry, merge them together into a larger company, and then sell it off in a public float (initial public offering, IPO).

If medium-sized private companies trade at PE ratios of 5 and larger listed companies trade at PE ratios of 15, what return can be achieved from this strategy?

Assume that:

• The medium-sized companies can be bought, merged and sold in an IPO instantaneously.
• There are no costs of finding, valuing, merging and restructuring the medium sized companies. Also, there is no competition to buy the medium-sized companies from other private equity firms.
• The large merged firm's earnings are the sum of the medium firms' earnings.
• The only reason for the difference in medium and large firm's PE ratios is due to the illiquidity of the medium firms' shares.
• Return is defined as: ##r_{0→1} = (p_1-p_0+c_1)/p_0## , where time zero is just before the merger and time one is just after.

(a) 300%.

(b) 200%

(c) 33.33%

(d) 30%

(e) 20%

Question 855  cash cycle, accounting ratio

The below diagram shows a firm’s cash cycle.

Which of the following statements about companies’ cash cycle is NOT correct?

(a) The cash cycle is typically measured in days.

(b) The lower the cash cycle, the better.

(c) The cash cycle represents the time that money is invested or ‘tied up’ in inventory.

(d) Companies should avoid negative cash cycles.

(e) The cash cycle is the time between the inventory payment date to the supplier and cash receipt date from the customer.

Question 868  cash cycle

What is the Cash Conversion Cycle for a firm with a:

• Payables period of 1 day;
• Inventory period of 50 days; and
• Receivables period of 30 days?

All answer options are in days:

(a) 19

(b) 21

(c) 79

(d) 80

(e) 81

Question 67  CFFA, interest tax shield

Here are the Net Income (NI) and Cash Flow From Assets (CFFA) equations:

###NI=(Rev-COGS-FC-Depr-IntExp).(1-t_c)###

###CFFA=NI+Depr-CapEx - \varDelta NWC+IntExp###

What is the formula for calculating annual interest expense (IntExp) which is used in the equations above?

Select one of the following answers. Note that D is the value of debt which is constant through time, and ##r_D## is the cost of debt.

(a) ##D(1+r_D)##

(b) ##D/(1+r_D) ##

(c) ##D.r_D ##

(d) ##D / r_D##

(e) ##NI.r_D##

Question 77  interest tax shield

The equations for Net Income (NI, also known as Earnings or Net Profit After Tax) and Cash Flow From Assets (CFFA, also known as Free Cash Flow to the Firm) per year are:

###NI=(Rev-COGS-FC-Depr-IntExp).(1-t_c)###

###CFFA=NI+Depr-CapEx - \varDelta NWC+IntExp###

For a firm with debt, what is the amount of the interest tax shield per year?

(a) ##IntExp.t_c##

(b) ##IntExp/t_c##

(c) ##IntExp.(1-t_c)##

(d) ##IntExp/(1-t_c)##

(e) ##IntExp.(t_c-1)##

Question 206  CFFA, interest expense, interest tax shield

Interest expense (IntExp) is an important part of a company's income statement (or 'profit and loss' or 'statement of financial performance').

How does an accountant calculate the annual interest expense of a fixed-coupon bond that has a liquid secondary market? Select the most correct answer:

Annual interest expense is equal to:

(a) the bond's face value multiplied by its annual yield to maturity.

(b) the bond's face value multiplied by its annual coupon rate.

(c) the bond's market price at the start of the year multiplied by its annual yield to maturity.

(d) the bond's market price at the start of the year multiplied by its annual coupon rate.

(e) the future value of the actual cash payments of the bond over the year, grown to the end of the year, and grown by the bond's yield to maturity.

Question 941  negative gearing, leverage, capital structure, interest tax shield, real estate

Last year, two friends Lev and Nolev each bought similar investment properties for $1 million. Both earned net rents of $30,000 pa over the past year. They funded their purchases in different ways:

• Lev used $200,000 of his own money and borrowed $800,000 from the bank in the form of an interest-only loan with an interest rate of 5% pa.
• Nolev used $1,000,000 of his own money, he has no mortgage loan on his property.

Both Lev and Nolev also work in high-paying jobs and are subject personal marginal tax rates of 45%.

Which of the below statements about the past year is NOT correct?

(a) Lev’s annual interest expense would have been $40,000.

(b) Lev’s annual loss before tax on the investment property was $10,000

(c) Lev’s annual loss after tax on the investment property was $5,500

(d) Lev’s personal tax saving due to the investment property was $5,500.

(e) Nolev’s personal tax payable due to the investment property was $13,500.

Question 959  negative gearing, leverage, capital structure, interest tax shield, real estate

Last year, two friends Gear and Nogear invested in residential apartments. Each invested $1 million of their own money (their net wealth).

Apartments cost $1,000,000 last year and they earned net rents of $30,000 pa over the last year. Net rents are calculated as rent revenues less the costs of renting such as property maintenance, land tax and council rates. However, interest expense and personal income taxes are not deducted from net rents.

Gear and Nogear funded their purchases in different ways:

• Gear used $1,000,000 of her own money and borrowed $4,000,000 from the bank in the form of an interest-only loan with an interest rate of 5% pa to buy 5 apartments.
• Nogear used $1,000,000 of his own money to buy one apartment. He has no mortgage loan on his property.

Both Gear and Nogear also work in high-paying jobs and are subject personal marginal tax rates of 45%.

Which of the below statements about the past year is NOT correct?

(a) Gear’s total annual interest expense would have been $200,000.

(b) Gear’s total annual loss before tax on the investment properties was $50,000

(c) Gear’s total annual loss after tax on the investment properties was $27,500

(d) Gear’s total personal tax saving due to the investment properties was $22,500.

(e) Nogear’s total personal tax payable due to the investment property was $16,500.

Question 375  interest tax shield, CFFA

One formula for calculating a levered firm's free cash flow (FFCF, or CFFA) is to use net operating profit after tax (NOPAT).

###\begin{aligned} FFCF &= NOPAT + Depr - CapEx -\Delta NWC \\ &= (Rev - COGS - Depr - FC)(1-t_c) + Depr - CapEx -\Delta NWC \\ \end{aligned} \\###

Does this annual FFCF or the annual interest tax shield?

Question 367  CFFA, interest tax shield

There are many ways to calculate a firm's free cash flow (FFCF), also called cash flow from assets (CFFA). Some include the annual interest tax shield in the cash flow and some do not.

Which of the below FFCF formulas include the interest tax shield in the cash flow?

###(1) \quad FFCF=NI + Depr - CapEx -ΔNWC + IntExp### ###(2) \quad FFCF=NI + Depr - CapEx -ΔNWC + IntExp.(1-t_c)### ###(3) \quad FFCF=EBIT.(1-t_c )+ Depr- CapEx -ΔNWC+IntExp.t_c### ###(4) \quad FFCF=EBIT.(1-t_c) + Depr- CapEx -ΔNWC### ###(5) \quad FFCF=EBITDA.(1-t_c )+Depr.t_c- CapEx -ΔNWC+IntExp.t_c### ###(6) \quad FFCF=EBITDA.(1-t_c )+Depr.t_c- CapEx -ΔNWC### ###(7) \quad FFCF=EBIT-Tax + Depr - CapEx -ΔNWC### ###(8) \quad FFCF=EBIT-Tax + Depr - CapEx -ΔNWC-IntExp.t_c### ###(9) \quad FFCF=EBITDA-Tax - CapEx -ΔNWC### ###(10) \quad FFCF=EBITDA-Tax - CapEx -ΔNWC-IntExp.t_c###

The formulas for net income (NI also called earnings), EBIT and EBITDA are given below. Assume that depreciation and amortisation are both represented by 'Depr' and that 'FC' represents fixed costs such as rent.

###NI=(Rev - COGS - Depr - FC - IntExp).(1-t_c )### ###EBIT=Rev - COGS - FC-Depr### ###EBITDA=Rev - COGS - FC### ###Tax =(Rev - COGS - Depr - FC - IntExp).t_c= \dfrac{NI.t_c}{1-t_c}###

(a) 1, 3, 5, 7, 9.

(b) 2, 4, 6, 8, 10.

(c) 1, 4, 6, 8, 10.

(d) 2, 3, 5, 7, 9.

(e) 1, 3, 5, 8, 10.

Question 371  interest tax shield, CFFA

One method for calculating a firm's free cash flow (FFCF, or CFFA) is to ignore interest expense. That is, pretend that interest expense ##(IntExp)## is zero:

###\begin{aligned} FFCF &= (Rev - COGS - Depr - FC - IntExp)(1-t_c) + Depr - CapEx -\Delta NWC + IntExp \\ &= (Rev - COGS - Depr - FC - 0)(1-t_c) + Depr - CapEx -\Delta NWC - 0\\ \end{aligned}###

Does this annual FFCF with zero interest expense or the annual interest tax shield?

Question 88  WACC, CAPM

A firm can issue 3 year annual coupon bonds at a yield of 10% pa and a coupon rate of 8% pa.

The beta of its levered equity is 2. The market's expected return is 10% pa and 3 year government bonds yield 6% pa with a coupon rate of 4% pa.

The market value of equity is $1 million and the market value of debt is $1 million. The corporate tax rate is 30%.

What is the firm's after-tax WACC? Assume a classical tax system.

(a) 8.40%

(b) 10.50%

(c) 10.80%

(d) 12.00%

(e) 21.00%

Question 237  WACC, Miller and Modigliani, interest tax shield

Which of the following discount rates should be the highest for a levered company? Ignore the costs of financial distress.

(a) Cost of debt (##r_\text{D}##).

(b) Unlevered cost of equity (##r_\text{E, U}##).

(c) Levered cost of equity (##r_\text{E, L}##).

(d) Levered before-tax WACC (##r_\text{V, LxITS}##).

(e) Levered after-tax WACC (##r_\text{V, LwITS}##).

Question 84  WACC, capital structure, capital budgeting

A firm is considering a new project of similar risk to the current risk of the firm. This project will expand its existing business. The cash flows of the project have been calculated assuming that there is no interest expense. In other words, the cash flows assume that the project is all-equity financed.

In fact the firm has a target debt-to-equity ratio of 1, so the project will be financed with 50% debt and 50% equity. To find the levered value of the firm's assets, what discount rate should be applied to the project's unlevered cash flows? Assume a classical tax system.

(a) The required return on equity, ##r_E##

(b) The required return on debt, ##r_D##

(c) The after-tax required return on debt, ##r_D.(1-t_c)##

(d) The after-tax WACC, ##\text{WACC after tax}=\frac{D}{V_L}.r_D.(1-t_c )+\frac{E_L}{V_L}.r_E##

(e) The pre-tax WACC, ##\text{WACC before tax}=\frac{D}{V_L}.r_D+\frac{E_L}{V_L}.r_E##

Question 766  CFFA, WACC, interest tax shield, DDM

Use the below information to value a levered company with constant annual perpetual cash flows from assets. The next cash flow will be generated in one year from now, so a perpetuity can be used to value this firm. Both the operating and firm free cash flows are constant (but not equal to each other).

Data on a Levered Firm with Perpetual Cash Flows
Item abbreviation	Value	Item full name
##\text{OFCF}##	$100m	Operating free cash flow
##\text{FFCF or CFFA}##	$112m	Firm free cash flow or cash flow from assets (includes interest tax shields)
##g##	0% pa	Growth rate of OFCF and FFCF
##\text{WACC}_\text{BeforeTax}##	7% pa	Weighted average cost of capital before tax
##\text{WACC}_\text{AfterTax}##	6.25% pa	Weighted average cost of capital after tax
##r_\text{D}##	5% pa	Cost of debt
##r_\text{EL}##	9% pa	Cost of levered equity
##D/V_L##	50% pa	Debt to assets ratio, where the asset value includes tax shields
##t_c##	30%	Corporate tax rate

 

What is the value of the levered firm including interest tax shields?

(a) $431.111m

(b) $444.444m

(c) $485m

(d) $515.464m

(e) $1600m

Question 303  WACC, CAPM, CFFA

There are many different ways to value a firm's assets. Which of the following will NOT give the correct market value of a levered firm's assets ##(V_L)##? Assume that:

• The firm is financed by listed common stock and vanilla annual fixed coupon bonds, which are both traded in a liquid market.
• The bonds' yield is equal to the coupon rate, so the bonds are issued at par. The yield curve is flat and yields are not expected to change. When bonds mature they will be rolled over by issuing the same number of new bonds with the same expected yield and coupon rate, and so on forever.
• Tax rates on the dividends and capital gains received by investors are equal, and capital gains tax is paid every year, even on unrealised gains regardless of when the asset is sold.
• There is no re-investment of the firm's cash back into the business. All of the firm's excess cash flow is paid out as dividends so real growth is zero.
• The firm operates in a mature industry with zero real growth.
• All cash flows and rates in the below equations are real (not nominal) and are expected to be stable forever. Therefore the perpetuity equation with no growth is suitable for valuation.

(a) ##V_L = n_\text{shares}.P_\text{share} + n_\text{bonds}.P_\text{bond}##

(b) ##V_L = n_\text{shares}.\dfrac{\text{Dividend per share}}{r_f + \beta_{EL}(r_m - r_f)} + n_\text{bonds}.\dfrac{\text{Coupon per bond}}{r_f + \beta_D(r_m - r_f)}##

(c) ##V_L = \dfrac{\text{CFFA}_{L}}{r_\text{WACC before tax}}##

(d) ##V_L = \dfrac{\text{CFFA}_{U}}{r_\text{WACC after tax}}##

(e) ##V_L = \dfrac{\text{CFFA}_{L}}{r_\text{WACC after tax}}##

Where:

###r_\text{WACC before tax} = r_D.\frac{D}{V_L} + r_{EL}.\frac{E_L}{V_L} = \text{Weighted average cost of capital before tax}### ###r_\text{WACC after tax} = r_D.(1-t_c).\frac{D}{V_L} + r_{EL}.\frac{E_L}{V_L} = \text{Weighted average cost of capital after tax}### ###NI_L=(Rev-COGS-FC-Depr-\mathbf{IntExp}).(1-t_c) = \text{Net Income Levered}### ###CFFA_L=NI_L+Depr-CapEx - \varDelta NWC+\mathbf{IntExp} = \text{Cash Flow From Assets Levered}### ###NI_U=(Rev-COGS-FC-Depr).(1-t_c) = \text{Net Income Unlevered}### ###CFFA_U=NI_U+Depr-CapEx - \varDelta NWC= \text{Cash Flow From Assets Unlevered}###

Question 772  interest tax shield, capital structure, leverage

A firm issues debt and uses the funds to buy back equity. Assume that there are no costs of financial distress or transactions costs. Which of the following statements about interest tax shields is NOT correct?

(a) Higher debt leads to higher interest expense.

(b) Higher interest expense leads to lower profit before tax, following on from above.

(c) Lower profit before tax leads to lower tax payments, following on from above.

(d) Lower tax payments lead to higher cash flow from assets, following on from above.

(e) Lower profit after tax leads to a lower share price, following on from above.

Question 773  CFFA, WACC, interest tax shield, DDM

Use the below information to value a levered company with constant annual perpetual cash flows from assets. The next cash flow will be generated in one year from now, so a perpetuity can be used to value this firm. Both the operating and firm free cash flows are constant (but not equal to each other).

Data on a Levered Firm with Perpetual Cash Flows
Item abbreviation	Value	Item full name
##\text{OFCF}##	$48.5m	Operating free cash flow
##\text{FFCF or CFFA}##	$50m	Firm free cash flow or cash flow from assets
##g##	0% pa	Growth rate of OFCF and FFCF
##\text{WACC}_\text{BeforeTax}##	10% pa	Weighted average cost of capital before tax
##\text{WACC}_\text{AfterTax}##	9.7% pa	Weighted average cost of capital after tax
##r_\text{D}##	5% pa	Cost of debt
##r_\text{EL}##	11.25% pa	Cost of levered equity
##D/V_L##	20% pa	Debt to assets ratio, where the asset value includes tax shields
##t_c##	30%	Corporate tax rate

 

What is the value of the levered firm including interest tax shields?

(a) $515.464m

(b) $500m

(c) $485m

(d) $444.444m

(e) $431.111m

Question 804  CFFA, WACC, interest tax shield, DDM

Use the below information to value a levered company with annual perpetual cash flows from assets that grow. The next cash flow will be generated in one year from now. Note that ‘k’ means kilo or 1,000. So the $30k is $30,000.

Data on a Levered Firm with Perpetual Cash Flows
Item abbreviation	Value	Item full name
##\text{OFCF}##	$30k	Operating free cash flow
##g##	1.5% pa	Growth rate of OFCF
##r_\text{D}##	4% pa	Cost of debt
##r_\text{EL}##	16.3% pa	Cost of levered equity
##D/V_L##	80% pa	Debt to assets ratio, where the asset value includes tax shields
##t_c##	30%	Corporate tax rate
##n_\text{shares}##	100k	Number of shares

 

Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

(a) The WACC before tax is 6.46% pa.

(b) The WACC after tax is 5.50% pa.

(c) The current levered asset value including tax shields is $603.839k.

(d) The current debt value is $600k and the interest tax shield benefit over the first year is $7.2k (at t=1).

(e) The current share price is $1.50.

Question 504  CFFA

Read the following financial statements and calculate the firm's free cash flow over the 2014 financial year.

UBar Corp
Income Statement for
year ending 30th June 2014
	$m
Sales	293
COGS	200
Rent expense	15
Gas expense	8
Depreciation	10
EBIT	60
Interest expense	0
Taxable income	60
Taxes	18
Net income	42

UBar Corp
Balance Sheet
as at 30th June	2014	2013
	$m	$m
Assets
Cash	30	29
Accounts receivable	5	7
Pre-paid rent expense	1	0
Inventory	50	46
PPE	290	300
Total assets	376	382
Liabilities
Trade payables	20	18
Accrued gas expense	3	2
Non-current liabilities	0	0
Contributed equity	212	212
Retained profits	136	150
Asset revaluation reserve	5	0
Total L and OE	376	382

 

Note: all figures are given in millions of dollars ($m).

The firm's free cash flow over the 2014 financial year was:

(a) $51

(b) $52

(c) $58

(d) $61

(e) $62

Question 273  CFFA, capital budgeting

Value the following business project to manufacture a new product.

Project Data
Project life	2 yrs
Initial investment in equipment	$6m
Depreciation of equipment per year	$3m
Expected sale price of equipment at end of project	$0.6m
Unit sales per year	4m
Sale price per unit	$8
Variable cost per unit	$5
Fixed costs per year, paid at the end of each year	$1m
Interest expense per year	0
Tax rate	30%
Weighted average cost of capital after tax per annum	10%

Notes

1. The firm's current assets and current liabilities are $3m and $2m respectively right now. This net working capital will not be used in this project, it will be used in other unrelated projects.
   Due to the project, current assets (mostly inventory) will grow by $2m initially (at t = 0), and then by $0.2m at the end of the first year (t=1).
   Current liabilities (mostly trade creditors) will increase by $0.1m at the end of the first year (t=1).
   At the end of the project, the net working capital accumulated due to the project can be sold for the same price that it was bought.
2. The project cost $0.5m to research which was incurred one year ago.

Assumptions

• All cash flows occur at the start or end of the year as appropriate, not in the middle or throughout the year.
• All rates and cash flows are real. The inflation rate is 3% pa.
• All rates are given as effective annual rates.
• The business considering the project is run as a 'sole tradership' (run by an individual without a company) and is therefore eligible for a 50% capital gains tax discount when the equipment is sold, as permitted by the Australian Tax Office.

What is the expected net present value (NPV) of the project?

(a) $5.2m

(b) $8.481735m

(c) $8.743802m

(d) $8.991736m

(e) $9.719008m

Question 68  WACC, CFFA, capital budgeting

A manufacturing company is considering a new project in the more risky services industry. The cash flows from assets (CFFA) are estimated for the new project, with interest expense excluded from the calculations. To get the levered value of the project, what should these unlevered cash flows be discounted by?

Assume that the manufacturing firm has a target debt-to-assets ratio that it sticks to.

(a) The manufacturing firm's before-tax WACC.

(b) The manufacturing firm's after-tax WACC.

(c) A services firm's before-tax WACC, assuming that the services firm has the same debt-to-assets ratio as the manufacturing firm.

(d) A services firm's after-tax WACC, assuming that the services firm has the same debt-to-assets ratio as the manufacturing firm.

(e) The services firm's levered cost of equity.

Question 341  Multiples valuation, PE ratio

Estimate Microsoft's (MSFT) share price using a price earnings (PE) multiples approach with the following assumptions and figures only:

• Apple, Google and Microsoft are comparable companies,
• Apple's (AAPL) share price is $526.24 and historical EPS is $40.32.
• Google's (GOOG) share price is $1,215.65 and historical EPS is $36.23.
• Micrsoft's (MSFT) historical earnings per share (EPS) is $2.71.

Source: Google Finance 28 Feb 2014.

(a) $63.15

(b) $61.67

(c) $30.83

(d) $28.25

(e) $8.60

Question 354  PE ratio, Multiples valuation

Which firms tend to have low forward-looking price-earnings (PE) ratios?

Only consider firms with positive earnings, disregard firms with negative earnings and therefore negative PE ratios.

(a) Illiquid small private companies.

(b) High growth technology firms.

(c) Firms expected to have temporarily low earnings over the next year, but with higher earnings later.

(d) Firms with a very low level of systematic risk.

(e) Firms whose assets include a very large proportion of cash.

Question 357  PE ratio, Multiples valuation

Which of the following investable assets are NOT suitable for valuation using PE multiples techniques?

(a) Common equity in a listed public mining extraction company that will cease operations, wind up, and return all capital to shareholders in one year when its sole gold mine becomes depleted.

(b) Common equity in a small private owner-operated mining services company whose main asset is its sole tanker truck which delivers fuel to mines. The firm's shares are 100% owned by Bob, the driver of the tanker truck.

(c) Common equity in a large listed public company in the banking industry.

(d) Residential apartment real estate.

(e) Commercial warehouse real estate.

Question 364  PE ratio, Multiples valuation

Which firms tend to have high forward-looking price-earnings (PE) ratios?

(a) Illiquid small private companies.

(b) Exchange-listed companies operating in stagnant industries with negative growth prospects.

(c) Exchange-listed companies expected to have temporarily high earnings over the next year, but with lower earnings later.

(d) Exchange-listed companies operating in high-risk industries with very high required returns on equity.

(e) Exchange-listed companies whose assets include a very large proportion of cash.

Question 457  PE ratio, Multiples valuation

Which firms tend to have low forward-looking price-earnings (PE) ratios? Only consider firms with positive PE ratios.

(a) Highly liquid publically listed firms.

(b) Firms in a declining industry with very low or negative earnings growth.

(c) Firms expected to have temporarily low earnings over the next year, but with higher earnings later.

(d) Firms whose returns have a very low level of systematic risk.

(e) Firms whose assets include a very large proportion of cash.

Question 537  PE ratio, Multiples valuation, no explanation

Estimate the French bank Societe Generale's share price using a backward-looking price earnings (PE) multiples approach with the following assumptions and figures only. Note that EUR is the euro, the European monetary union's currency.

• The 4 major European banks Credit Agricole (ACA), Deutsche Bank AG (DBK), UniCredit (UCG) and Banco Santander (SAN) are comparable companies to Societe Generale (GLE);
• Societe Generale's (GLE's) historical earnings per share (EPS) is EUR 2.92;
• ACA's backward-looking PE ratio is 16.29 and historical EPS is EUR 0.84;
• DBK's backward-looking PE ratio is 25.01 and historical EPS is EUR 1.26;
• SAN's backward-looking PE ratio is 14.71 and historical EPS is EUR 0.47;
• UCG's backward-looking PE ratio is 15.78 and historical EPS is EUR 0.40;

Note: Figures sourced from Google Finance on 27 March 2015.

(a) EUR 209.6268

(b) EUR 52.4067

(c) EUR 8.6724

(d) EUR 3.9327

(e) EUR 2.1681

Question 547  PE ratio, Multiples valuation, DDM, income and capital returns, no explanation

A firm pays out all of its earnings as dividends. Because of this, the firm has no real growth in earnings, dividends or stock price since there is no re-investment back into the firm to buy new assets and make higher earnings. The dividend discount model is suitable to value this company.

The firm's revenues and costs are expected to increase by inflation in the foreseeable future. The firm has no debt. It operates in the services industry and has few physical assets so there is negligible depreciation expense and negligible net working capital required.

Which of the following statements about this firm's PE ratio is NOT correct? The PE ratio should:

(a) Equal the inverse of the firm's nominal income return.

(b) Equal the inverse of the firm's real total return.

(c) Equal the inverse of the firm's real capital return.

(d) Equal the expected payback period of an investor who intends to buy the firm's equity at the current price.

(e) Be lower than that of faster growing firms that pay lower dividends and re-invest in themselves.

Note: The inverse of x is 1/x.

Question 402  PE ratio, no explanation

Which of the following companies is most suitable for valuation using PE multiples techniques?

(a) A company with positive earnings that does not have any comparable firms.

(b) A company with positive earnings that has comparable firms with positive earnings.

(c) A company with positive earnings that has comparable firms with negative earnings.

(d) A company with negative earnings that has comparable firms with negative earnings.

(e) A company with negative earnings that has comparable firms with positive earnings.

Question 403  PE ratio, no explanation

Which of the following investable assets is the LEAST suitable for valuation using PE multiples techniques?

(a) Common equity in a small private company.

(b) Common equity in a listed public company.

(c) Commercial real estate.

(d) Ten year commercial real estate lease.

(e) Residential real estate.

Question 414  PE ratio, pay back period, no explanation

A mature firm has constant expected future earnings and dividends. Both amounts are equal. So earnings and dividends are expected to be equal and unchanging.

Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

(a) This firm's expected capital return equals zero.

(b) This firm's expected total return and income return are equal.

(c) This firm's forward looking PE ratio will equal the inverse of the firm's expected income return.

(d) This firm's forward looking PE ratio will equal the inverse of the firm's expected capital return.

(e) This firm's forward looking PE ratio is equal to the expected payback period, which is the time it will take for the sum of the cash flows to equal the share price.

Question 983  corporate financial decision theory, DuPont formula, accounting ratio

A company manager is thinking about the firm's book assets-to-equity ratio, also called the 'equity multiplier' in the DuPont formula:

###\text{Equity multiplier} = \dfrac{\text{Total Assets}}{\text{Owners' Equity}}###

What's the name of the decision that the manager is thinking about? In other words, the assets-to-equity ratio is the main subject of what decision?

(a) Investment decision.

(b) Financing decision.

(c) Working capital decision.

(d) Payout policy decision.

(e) Capital or labour decision.

Note: DuPont formula for analysing book return on equity:

###\begin{aligned} \text{ROE} &= \dfrac{\text{Net Profit}}{\text{Sales}} \times \dfrac{\text{Sales}}{\text{Total Assets}} \times \dfrac{\text{Total Assets}}{\text{Owners' Equity}} \\ &= \text{Net profit margin} \times \text{Total asset turnover} \times \text{Equity multiplier} \\ \end{aligned}###

Question 165  DDM, PE ratio, payout ratio

For certain shares, the forward-looking Price-Earnings Ratio (##P_0/EPS_1##) is equal to the inverse of the share's total expected return (##1/r_\text{total}##). For what shares is this true?

Use the general accounting definition of 'payout ratio' which is dividends per share (DPS) divided by earnings per share (EPS) and assume that all cash flows, earnings and rates are real rather than nominal.

A company's forward-looking PE ratio will be the inverse of its total expected return on equity when it has a:

(a) 100% payout ratio and high expected growth in earnings and dividends.

(b) 100% payout ratio and negative expected growth in earnings and dividends.

(c) 100% payout ratio and no expected growth in earnings or dividends.

(d) 0% payout ratio and no expected growth in earnings or dividends.

(e) 0% payout ratio and negative expected growth in earnings and dividends.

Question 468  PE ratio

A firm has 1 million shares which trade at a price of $30 each. The firm is expected to announce earnings of $3 million at the end of the year and pay an annual dividend of $1.50 per share.

What is the firm's (forward looking) price/earnings (PE) ratio?

(a) 20

(b) 10

(c) 3

(d) 2

(e) 0.5

Question 474  PE ratio

The below screenshot of Commonwealth Bank of Australia's (CBA) details were taken from the Google Finance website on 7 Nov 2014. Some information has been deliberately blanked out.

What was CBA's backwards-looking price-earnings ratio?

(a)17.06

(b) 0.063

(c) 15.88

(d) 3.21

(e) 8.44

Question 483  PE ratio

The below screenshot of Microsoft's (MSFT) details were taken from the Google Finance website on 28 Nov 2014. Some information has been deliberately blanked out.

What was MSFT's backwards-looking price-earnings ratio?

(a) $21.01

(b) 21.01

(c) $18.75

(d) 18.75

(e) 18.75%

Question 370  capital budgeting, NPV, interest tax shield, WACC, CFFA

Project Data
Project life	2 yrs
Initial investment in equipment	$600k
Depreciation of equipment per year	$250k
Expected sale price of equipment at end of project	$200k
Revenue per job	$12k
Variable cost per job	$4k
Quantity of jobs per year	120
Fixed costs per year, paid at the end of each year	$100k
Interest expense in first year (at t=1)	$16.091k
Interest expense in second year (at t=2)	$9.711k
Tax rate	30%
Government treasury bond yield	5%
Bank loan debt yield	6%
Levered cost of equity	12.5%
Market portfolio return	10%
Beta of assets	1.24
Beta of levered equity	1.5
Firm's and project's debt-to-equity ratio	25%

Notes

1. The project will require an immediate purchase of $50k of inventory, which will all be sold at cost when the project ends. Current liabilities are negligible so they can be ignored.

Assumptions

• The debt-to-equity ratio will be kept constant throughout the life of the project. The amount of interest expense at the end of each period has been correctly calculated to maintain this constant debt-to-equity ratio. Note that interest expense is different in each year.
• Thousands are represented by 'k' (kilo).
• All cash flows occur at the start or end of the year as appropriate, not in the middle or throughout the year.
• All rates and cash flows are nominal. The inflation rate is 2% pa.
• All rates are given as effective annual rates.
• The 50% capital gains tax discount is not available since the project is undertaken by a firm, not an individual.

What is the net present value (NPV) of the project?

(a) $684.222k

(b) $690.919k

(c) $697.616k

(d) $698.713k

(e) $710.601k

Question 411  WACC, capital structure

A firm plans to issue equity and use the cash raised to pay off its debt. No assets will be bought or sold. Ignore the costs of financial distress.

Which of the following statements is NOT correct, all things remaining equal?

(a) The firm's WACC before tax will rise.

(b) The firm's WACC after tax will rise.

(c) The firm's required return on equity will be lower.

(d) The firm's net income will be higher.

(e) The firm's free cash flow will be lower.

Question 987  interest tax shield, capital structure, debt terminology

What creates interest tax shields for a company?

(a) Debt assets.

(b) Debt funding.

(c) Equity assets.

(d) Equity funding.

(e) None of the above.

Question 418  capital budgeting, NPV, interest tax shield, WACC, CFFA, CAPM

Project Data
Project life	1 year
Initial investment in equipment	$8m
Depreciation of equipment per year	$8m
Expected sale price of equipment at end of project	0
Unit sales per year	4m
Sale price per unit	$10
Variable cost per unit	$5
Fixed costs per year, paid at the end of each year	$2m
Interest expense in first year (at t=1)	$0.562m
Corporate tax rate	30%
Government treasury bond yield	5%
Bank loan debt yield	9%
Market portfolio return	10%
Covariance of levered equity returns with market	0.32
Variance of market portfolio returns	0.16
Firm's and project's debt-to-equity ratio	50%

Notes

1. Due to the project, current assets will increase by $6m now (t=0) and fall by $6m at the end (t=1). Current liabilities will not be affected.

Assumptions

• The debt-to-equity ratio will be kept constant throughout the life of the project. The amount of interest expense at the end of each period has been correctly calculated to maintain this constant debt-to-equity ratio.
• Millions are represented by 'm'.
• All cash flows occur at the start or end of the year as appropriate, not in the middle or throughout the year.
• All rates and cash flows are real. The inflation rate is 2% pa. All rates are given as effective annual rates.
• The project is undertaken by a firm, not an individual.

What is the net present value (NPV) of the project?

(a) $5.772m

(b) $4.979m

(c) $4.959m

(d) $4.733m

(e) $4.584m

Question 419  capital budgeting, NPV, interest tax shield, WACC, CFFA, CAPM, no explanation

Project Data
Project life	1 year
Initial investment in equipment	$6m
Depreciation of equipment per year	$6m
Expected sale price of equipment at end of project	0
Unit sales per year	9m
Sale price per unit	$8
Variable cost per unit	$6
Fixed costs per year, paid at the end of each year	$1m
Interest expense in first year (at t=1)	$0.53m
Tax rate	30%
Government treasury bond yield	5%
Bank loan debt yield	6%
Market portfolio return	10%
Covariance of levered equity returns with market	0.08
Variance of market portfolio returns	0.16
Firm's and project's debt-to-assets ratio	50%

Notes

1. Due to the project, current assets will increase by $5m now (t=0) and fall by $5m at the end (t=1). Current liabilities will not be affected.

Assumptions

• The debt-to-assets ratio will be kept constant throughout the life of the project. The amount of interest expense at the end of each period has been correctly calculated to maintain this constant debt-to-equity ratio.
• Millions are represented by 'm'.
• All cash flows occur at the start or end of the year as appropriate, not in the middle or throughout the year.
• All rates and cash flows are real. The inflation rate is 2% pa.
• All rates are given as effective annual rates.
• The 50% capital gains tax discount is not available since the project is undertaken by a firm, not an individual.

What is the net present value (NPV) of the project?

(a) $7.33k

(b) $7.299k

(c) $6.946k

(d) $6.729k

(e) $6.667k

Question 176  CFFA

Why is Capital Expenditure (CapEx) subtracted in the Cash Flow From Assets (CFFA) formula?

###CFFA=NI+Depr-CapEx - \Delta NWC+IntExp###

(a) CapEx is added in the Net Income (NI) equation so it needs subtracting in the CFFA equation.

(b) CapEx is a financing cash flow that needs to be ignored. Therefore it should be subtracted.

(c) CapEx is not a cash flow, it's a non-cash expense made up by accountants that needs to be subtracted.

(d) CapEx is subtracted to account for the net cash spent on capital assets.

(e) CapEx is subtracted because it's too hard to predict, therefore we exclude it.

Question 223  CFFA, interest tax shield

Which one of the following will increase the Cash Flow From Assets in this year for a tax-paying firm, all else remaining constant?

(a) An increase in net capital spending.

(b) A decrease in the cash flow to creditors.

(c) An increase in interest expense.

(d) An increase in net working capital.

(e) A decrease in dividends paid.

Question 224  CFFA

Cash Flow From Assets (CFFA) can be defined as:

(a) Cash available to distribute to creditors and stockholders.

(b) Cash flow to creditors minus cash flow to stockholders.

(c) Net income (or earnings) plus depreciation plus interest expense.

(d) Net income minus the increase in net working capital.

(e) Net income minus net capital spending minus the increase in net working capital.

Question 225  CFFA

A firm has forecast its Cash Flow From Assets (CFFA) for this year and management is worried that it is too low. Which one of the following actions will lead to a higher CFFA for this year (t=0 to 1)? Only consider cash flows this year. Do not consider cash flows after one year, or the change in the NPV of the firm. Consider each action in isolation.

(a) Buy less land, buildings and trucks than what was planned. Assume that this has no impact on revenue.

(b) Pay off more debt than was planned, to reduce the firm’s interest expense.

(c) Change the depreciation method used for tax purposes from diminishing value to straight line, so less depreciation occurs this year and more occurs in later years. Assume that the government’s tax department allow this.

(d) Buying more inventory than was planned, so there is an increase in net working capital. Assume that there is no increase in sales.

(e) Raising new equity through a rights issue. Assume that all of the money raised is spent on new capital assets such as land and trucks, but they will be fitted out and delivered in one year so no new cash will be earned from them.

Question 226  CFFA

Find World Bar's Cash Flow From Assets (CFFA), also known as Free Cash Flow to the Firm (FCFF), over the year ending 30th June 2013.

World Bar
Income Statement for
year ending 30th June 2013
	$m
Sales	300
COGS	150
Operating expense	50
Depreciation	40
Interest expense	10
Taxable income	50
Tax at 30%	15
Net income	35

World Bar
Balance Sheet
as at 30th June	2013	2012
	$m	$m
Assets
Current assets	200	230
PPE
Cost	400	400
Accumul. depr.	75	35
Carrying amount	325	365
Total assets	525	595
Liabilities
Current liabilities	150	205
Non-current liabilities	235	250
Owners' equity
Retained earnings	100	100
Contributed equity	40	40
Total L and OE	525	595

 

Note: all figures above and below are given in millions of dollars ($m).

(a) 145

(b) 100

(c) 90

(d) 60

(e) -20

Question 238  CFFA, leverage, interest tax shield

A company increases the proportion of debt funding it uses to finance its assets by issuing bonds and using the cash to repurchase stock, leaving assets unchanged.

Ignoring the costs of financial distress, which of the following statements is NOT correct:

(a) The company is increasing its debt-to-assets and debt-to-equity ratios. These are types of 'leverage' or 'gearing' ratios.

(b) The company will pay less tax to the government due to the benefit of interest tax shields.

(c) The company's net income, also known as earnings or net profit after tax, will fall.

(d) The company's expected levered firm free cash flow (FFCF or CFFA) will be higher due to tax shields.

(e) The company's expected levered equity free cash flow (EFCF) will not change.

Question 205  depreciation tax shield, CFFA

There are a number of ways that assets can be depreciated. Generally the government's tax office stipulates a certain method.

But if it didn't, what would be the ideal way to depreciate an asset from the perspective of a businesses owner?

(a) 'Straight line' or 'prime cost' depreciation, which allocates equal depreciation expenses over each year of the asset's life.

(b) 'Diminishing value' or 'reducing balance' depreciation, which allocates more depreciation expense at the start of the asset's life and less towards the end.

(c) No depreciation at all, so the asset is always kept on the books as being the same value that it was bought for. The asset will cause no depreciation expense in any year.

(d) Allocating all of the depreciation expense to the final year of the asset's life.

(e) Allocating all of the depreciation expense to the first year of the asset's life. Accountants would call this 'expensing' the asset, rather than 'capitalising' it and depreciating it slowly.

Question 296  CFFA, interest tax shield

Which one of the following will decrease net income (NI) but increase cash flow from assets (CFFA) in this year for a tax-paying firm, all else remaining constant?

Remember:

###NI=(Rev-COGS-FC-Depr-IntExp).(1-t_c )### ###CFFA=NI+Depr-CapEx - ΔNWC+IntExp###

(a) An increase in revenue (##Rev##).

(b) An decrease in revenue (##Rev##).

(c) An increase in rent expense (part of fixed costs, ##FC##).

(d) An increase in interest expense (##IntExp##).

(e) An increase in dividends.

Question 342  CFFA, capital budgeting

A new company's Firm Free Cash Flow (FFCF, same as CFFA) is forecast in the graph below.

To value the firm's assets, the terminal value needs to be calculated using the perpetuity with growth formula:

###V_{\text{terminal, }t-1} = \dfrac{FFCF_{\text{terminal, }t}}{r-g}###

Which point corresponds to the best time to calculate the terminal value?

(a) Point A.

(b) Point B.

(c) Point C.

(d) Any of the points.

(e) None of the points.

Question 343  CFFA, capital budgeting

An old company's Firm Free Cash Flow (FFCF, same as CFFA) is forecast in the graph below.

To value the firm's assets, the terminal value needs to be calculated using the perpetuity with growth formula:

###V_{\text{terminal, }t-1} = \dfrac{FFCF_{\text{terminal, }t}}{r-g}###

Which point corresponds to the best time to calculate the terminal value?

(a) Point A.

(b) Point B.

(c) Point C.

(d) Any of the points.

(e) None of the points.

Question 344  CFFA, capital budgeting

A new company's Firm Free Cash Flow (FFCF, same as CFFA) is forecast in the graph below.

To value the firm's assets, the terminal value needs to be calculated using the perpetuity with growth formula:

###V_{\text{terminal, }t-1} = \dfrac{FFCF_{\text{terminal, }t}}{r-g}###

Which point corresponds to the best time to calculate the terminal value?

(a) Point A.

(b) Point B.

(c) Point C.

(d) Any of the points.

(e) None of the points.

Question 350  CFFA

Find Sidebar Corporation's Cash Flow From Assets (CFFA), also known as Free Cash Flow to the Firm (FCFF), over the year ending 30th June 2013.

Sidebar Corp
Income Statement for
year ending 30th June 2013
	$m
Sales	405
COGS	100
Depreciation	34
Rent expense	22
Interest expense	39
Taxable Income	210
Taxes at 30%	63
Net income	147

Sidebar Corp
Balance Sheet
as at 30th June	2013	2012
	$m	$m
Cash	0	0
Inventory	70	50
Trade debtors	11	16
Rent paid in advance	4	3
PPE	700	680
Total assets	785	749
Trade creditors	11	19
Bond liabilities	400	390
Contributed equity	220	220
Retained profits	154	120
Total L and OE	785	749

 

Note: All figures are given in millions of dollars ($m).

The cash flow from assets was:

(a) $138m

(b) $142m

(c) $143m

(d) $172m

(e) $176m

Question 351  CFFA

Over the next year, the management of an unlevered company plans to:

• Achieve firm free cash flow (FFCF or CFFA) of $1m.
• Pay dividends of $1.8m
• Complete a $1.3m share buy-back.
• Spend $0.8m on new buildings without buying or selling any other fixed assets. This capital expenditure is included in the CFFA figure quoted above.

Assume that:

• All amounts are received and paid at the end of the year so you can ignore the time value of money.
• The firm has sufficient retained profits to pay the dividend and complete the buy back.
• The firm plans to run a very tight ship, with no excess cash above operating requirements currently or over the next year.

How much new equity financing will the company need? In other words, what is the value of new shares that will need to be issued?

(a) $2.1m

(b) $1.3m

(c) $0.8m

(d) $0.3m

(e) No new shares need to be issued, the firm will be sufficiently financed.

Question 359  CFFA

Which one of the following will have no effect on net income (NI) but decrease cash flow from assets (CFFA or FFCF) in this year for a tax-paying firm, all else remaining constant?

Remember:

###NI=(Rev-COGS-FC-Depr-IntExp).(1-t_c )### ###CFFA=NI+Depr-CapEx - ΔNWC+IntExp###

(a) An increase in revenue (Rev).

(b) An increase in rent expense (a type of recurring fixed cost, FC).

(c) An increase in depreciation expense (Depr).

(d) An increase in inventories (a current asset).

(e) An decrease in interest expense (IntExp).

Question 360  CFFA

Find Ching-A-Lings Corporation's Cash Flow From Assets (CFFA), also known as Free Cash Flow to the Firm (FCFF), over the year ending 30th June 2013.

Ching-A-Lings Corp
Income Statement for
year ending 30th June 2013
	$m
Sales	100
COGS	20
Depreciation	20
Rent expense	11
Interest expense	19
Taxable Income	30
Taxes at 30%	9
Net income	21

Ching-A-Lings Corp
Balance Sheet
as at 30th June	2013	2012
	$m	$m
Inventory	49	38
Trade debtors	14	2
Rent paid in advance	5	5
PPE	400	400
Total assets	468	445
Trade creditors	4	10
Bond liabilities	200	190
Contributed equity	145	145
Retained profits	119	100
Total L and OE	468	445

 

Note: All figures are given in millions of dollars ($m).

The cash flow from assets was:

(a) $43m

(b) $31m

(c) $23m

(d) $11m

(e) $1m

Question 361  CFFA

Over the next year, the management of an unlevered company plans to:

• Make $5m in sales, $1.9m in net income and $2m in equity free cash flow (EFCF).
• Pay dividends of $1m.
• Complete a $1.3m share buy-back.

Assume that:

• All amounts are received and paid at the end of the year so you can ignore the time value of money.
• The firm has sufficient retained profits to legally pay the dividend and complete the buy back.
• The firm plans to run a very tight ship, with no excess cash above operating requirements currently or over the next year.

How much new equity financing will the company need? In other words, what is the value of new shares that will need to be issued?

(a) $2m

(b) $1m

(c) $0.4m

(d) $0.3m

(e) No new shares need to be issued, the firm will be sufficiently financed.

Question 366  opportunity cost, NPV, CFFA

Your friend is trying to find the net present value of an investment which:

• Costs $1 million initially (t=0); and
• Pays a single positive cash flow of $1.1 million in one year (t=1).

The investment has a total required return of 10% pa due to its moderate level of undiversifiable risk.

Your friend is aware of the importance of opportunity costs and the time value of money, but he is unsure of how to find the NPV of the project.

He knows that the opportunity cost of investing the $1m in the project is the expected gain from investing the money in shares instead. Like the project, shares also have an expected return of 10% since they have moderate undiversifiable risk. This opportunity cost is $0.1m ##(=1m \times 10\%)## which occurs in one year (t=1).

He knows that the time value of money should be accounted for, and this can be done by finding the present value of the cash flows in one year.

Your friend has listed a few different ways to find the NPV which are written down below.

Method 1: ##-1m + \dfrac{1.1m}{(1+0.1)^1} ##

Method 2: ##-1m + 1.1m - 1m \times 0.1 ##

Method 3: ##-1m + \dfrac{1.1m}{(1+0.1)^1} - 1m \times 0.1 ##

Which of the above calculations give the correct NPV? Select the most correct answer.

(a) Method 1 only.

(b) Method 2 only.

(c) Method 3 only.

(d) Methods 1 and 2 only.

(e) Methods 1 and 3 only.

Question 368  interest tax shield, CFFA

A method commonly seen in textbooks for calculating a levered firm's free cash flow (FFCF, or CFFA) is the following:

###\begin{aligned} FFCF &= (Rev - COGS - Depr - FC - IntExp)(1-t_c) + \\ &\space\space\space+ Depr - CapEx -\Delta NWC + IntExp(1-t_c) \\ \end{aligned}###

Does this annual FFCF or the annual interest tax shield?

Question 369  interest tax shield, CFFA

One formula for calculating a levered firm's free cash flow (FFCF, or CFFA) is to use earnings before interest and tax (EBIT).

###\begin{aligned} FFCF &= (EBIT)(1-t_c) + Depr - CapEx -\Delta NWC + IntExp.t_c \\ &= (Rev - COGS - Depr - FC)(1-t_c) + Depr - CapEx -\Delta NWC + IntExp.t_c \\ \end{aligned} \\###

Does this annual FFCF or the annual interest tax shield?

Question 401  capital budgeting, CFFA

The hardest and most important aspect of business project valuation is the estimation of the:

(a) Diversifiable standard deviation of asset returns.

(b) Systematic standard deviation of asset returns.

(c) Proportion of debt and equity used to fund the assets.

(d) Cash flows from assets.

(e) Risk free rate.

Question 413  CFFA, interest tax shield, depreciation tax shield

There are many ways to calculate a firm's free cash flow (FFCF), also called cash flow from assets (CFFA).

One method is to use the following formulas to transform net income (NI) into FFCF including interest and depreciation tax shields:

###FFCF=NI + Depr - CapEx -ΔNWC + IntExp###

###NI=(Rev - COGS - Depr - FC - IntExp).(1-t_c )###

Another popular method is to use EBITDA rather than net income. EBITDA is defined as:

###EBITDA=Rev - COGS - FC###

One of the below formulas correctly calculates FFCF from EBITDA, including interest and depreciation tax shields, giving an identical answer to that above. Which formula is correct?

(a) ##FFCF=EBITDA+ Depr - CapEx -ΔNWC + IntExp##

(b) ##FFCF=EBITDA.(1-t_c )+Depr- CapEx -ΔNWC##

(c) ##FFCF=EBITDA.(1-t_c )+ Depr.t_c - CapEx -ΔNWC + IntExp.t_c##

(d) ##FFCF=EBITDA.(1-t_c )+Depr.(1-t_c )- CapEx -ΔNWC+IntExp.(1-t_c)##

(e) ##FFCF=EBITDA.(1-t_c )- CapEx -ΔNWC##

Question 658  CFFA, income statement, balance sheet, no explanation

To value a business's assets, the free cash flow of the firm (FCFF, also called CFFA) needs to be calculated. This requires figures from the firm's income statement and balance sheet. For what figures is the income statement needed? Note that the income statement is sometimes also called the profit and loss, P&L, or statement of financial performance.

(a) Net income, depreciation and interest expense.

(b) Depreciation and capital expenditure.

(c) Current assets and current liabilities.

(d) Current assets, current liabilities and capital expenditure.

(e) Current assets, current liabilities and depreciation expense.

Question 619  CFFA

To value a business's assets, the free cash flow of the firm (FCFF, also called CFFA) needs to be calculated. This requires figures from the firm's income statement and balance sheet. For what figures is the balance sheet needed? Note that the balance sheet is sometimes also called the statement of financial position.

(a) Net income, depreciation and interest expense.

(b) Depreciation and capital expenditure.

(c) Current assets, current liabilities and cost of goods sold (COGS).

(d) Current assets, current liabilities and capital expenditure.

(e) Current assets, current liabilities and depreciation expense.

Question 511  capital budgeting, CFFA

Find the cash flow from assets (CFFA) of the following project.

One Year Mining Project Data
Project life	1 year
Initial investment in building mine and equipment	$9m
Depreciation of mine and equipment over the year	$8m
Kilograms of gold mined at end of year	1,000
Sale price per kilogram	$0.05m
Variable cost per kilogram	$0.03m
Before-tax cost of closing mine at end of year	$4m
Tax rate	30%

Note 1: Due to the project, the firm also anticipates finding some rare diamonds which will give before-tax revenues of $1m at the end of the year.

Note 2: The land that will be mined actually has thermal springs and a family of koalas that could be sold to an eco-tourist resort for an after-tax amount of $3m right now. However, if the mine goes ahead then this natural beauty will be destroyed.

Note 3: The mining equipment will have a book value of $1m at the end of the year for tax purposes. However, the equipment is expected to fetch $2.5m when it is sold.

Find the project's CFFA at time zero and one. Answers are given in millions of dollars ($m), with the first cash flow at time zero, and the second at time one.

(a) -9,   15.65

(b) -9,   14.3

(c) -12,   16.8

(d) -12,   16.35

(e) -12,   14.3

Question 512  capital budgeting, CFFA

Find the cash flow from assets (CFFA) of the following project.

Project Data
Project life	2 years
Initial investment in equipment	$6m
Depreciation of equipment per year for tax purposes	$1m
Unit sales per year	4m
Sale price per unit	$8
Variable cost per unit	$3
Fixed costs per year, paid at the end of each year	$1.5m
Tax rate	30%

Note 1: The equipment will have a book value of $4m at the end of the project for tax purposes. However, the equipment is expected to fetch $0.9 million when it is sold at t=2.

Note 2: Due to the project, the firm will have to purchase $0.8m of inventory initially, which it will sell at t=1. The firm will buy another $0.8m at t=1 and sell it all again at t=2 with zero inventory left. The project will have no effect on the firm's current liabilities.

Find the project's CFFA at time zero, one and two. Answers are given in millions of dollars ($m).

(a) -6,   12.25,   16.68

(b) -6.8,   13.25,   14.05

(c) -6.8,   13.25,   15.88

(d) -6.8,   13.25,   18.51

(e) -6.8,   13.25,   17.71

Question 555  capital budgeting, CFFA

Find the cash flow from assets (CFFA) of the following project.

Project Data
Project life	2 years
Initial investment in equipment	$8m
Depreciation of equipment per year for tax purposes	$3m
Unit sales per year	10m
Sale price per unit	$9
Variable cost per unit	$4
Fixed costs per year, paid at the end of each year	$2m
Tax rate	30%

Note 1: Due to the project, the firm will have to purchase $40m of inventory initially (at t=0). Half of this inventory will be sold at t=1 and the other half at t=2.

Note 2: The equipment will have a book value of $2m at the end of the project for tax purposes. However, the equipment is expected to fetch $1m when it is sold. Assume that the full capital loss is tax-deductible and taxed at the full corporate tax rate.

Note 3: The project will be fully funded by equity which investors will expect to pay dividends totaling $10m at the end of each year.

Find the project's CFFA at time zero, one and two. Answers are given in millions of dollars ($m).

(a) -48,   54.5,   55.8

(b) -48,   54.5,   74.5

(c) -48,   74.5,   35.8

(d) -48,   74.5,   75.8

(e) -8,   74.5,   75.8

Question 291  CFFA

Find Scubar Corporation's Cash Flow From Assets (CFFA), also known as Free Cash Flow to the Firm (FCFF), over the year ending 30th June 2013.

Scubar Corp
Income Statement for
year ending 30th June 2013
	$m
Sales	200
COGS	60
Depreciation	20
Rent expense	11
Interest expense	19
Taxable Income	90
Taxes at 30%	27
Net income	63

Scubar Corp
Balance Sheet
as at 30th June	2013	2012
	$m	$m
Inventory	60	50
Trade debtors	19	6
Rent paid in advance	3	2
PPE	420	400
Total assets	502	458
Trade creditors	10	8
Bond liabilities	200	190
Contributed equity	130	130
Retained profits	162	130
Total L and OE	502	458

 

Note: All figures are given in millions of dollars ($m).

The cash flow from assets was:

(a) $40m

(b) $41m

(c) $54m

(d) $60m

(e) $74m

Question 349  CFFA, depreciation tax shield

Which one of the following will decrease net income (NI) but increase cash flow from assets (CFFA) in this year for a tax-paying firm, all else remaining constant?

Remember:

###NI = (Rev-COGS-FC-Depr-IntExp).(1-t_c )### ###CFFA=NI+Depr-CapEx - \Delta NWC+IntExp###

(a) An increase in revenue (Rev).

(b) An increase in rent expense (part of fixed costs, FC).

(c) An increase in depreciation expense (Depr).

(d) An decrease in net working capital (ΔNWC).

(e) An increase in dividends.

Question 69  interest tax shield, capital structure, leverage, WACC

Which statement about risk, required return and capital structure is the most correct?

(a) The before-tax cost of debt is less than the before-tax cost of equity. Therefore debt is a cheaper form of financing than equity so companies should try to finance their projects with debt only.

(b) Debt makes a firm's equity more risky. Therefore the higher the amount of debt, the higher the cost of equity.

(c) The more debt a firm has, the higher its tax shields. Therefore firms should seek to have as much debt and as little equity as possible.

(d) The more debt, the lower the firm's after tax WACC. The after tax WACC is the discount rate that discounts the firm's cash flows, so the lower it is the more the firm is worth. Therefore firms should try to make their after tax WACC as low as possible by using as much debt as possible.

(e) The less debt, the lower the chance of bankruptcy. Therefore firms should try to pay off all of their debt so that they are financed by equity only.

Question 95  interest tax shield

The equations for Net Income (NI, also known as Earnings or Net Profit After Tax) and Cash Flow From Assets (CFFA, also known as Free Cash Flow to the Firm) per year are:

###NI=(Rev-COGS-FC-Depr-IntExp).(1-t_c)###

###CFFA=NI+Depr-CapEx - \varDelta NWC+IntExp###

For a firm with debt, what is the formula for the present value of interest tax shields if the tax shields occur in perpetuity?

You may assume:

• the value of debt (D) is constant through time,
• The cost of debt and the yield on debt are equal and given by ##r_D##.
• the appropriate rate to discount interest tax shields is ##r_D##.
• ##\text{IntExp}=D.r_D##

(a) ##D.t_c##

(b) ##D.r_D/t_c ##

(c) ##D.r_D.(1-t_c)##

(d) ##D.r_D/(1-t_c)##

(e) ##D.r_D.(t_c-1)##

Question 121  capital structure, leverage, financial distress, interest tax shield

Fill in the missing words in the following sentence:

All things remaining equal, as a firm's amount of debt funding falls, benefits of interest tax shields __________ and the costs of financial distress __________.

(a) Fall, fall.

(b) Fall, rises.

(c) Rise, fall.

(d) Rise, rise.

(e) Remain unchanged, remain unchanged.

Question 657  systematic and idiosyncratic risk, CAPM, no explanation

A stock's required total return will decrease when its:

(a) Systematic risk increases.

(b) Idiosyncratic risk increases.

(c) Total risk increases.

(d) Systematic risk decreases.

(e) Idiosyncratic risk decreases.

Question 576  inflation, real and nominal returns and cash flows

What is the present value of a nominal payment of $1,000 in 4 years? The nominal discount rate is 8% pa and the inflation rate is 2% pa.

(a) $795.62

(b) $792.0937

(c) $735.0299

(d) $731.7721

(e) $683.0135

Question 577  inflation, real and nominal returns and cash flows

What is the present value of a real payment of $500 in 2 years? The nominal discount rate is 7% pa and the inflation rate is 4% pa.

(a) $472.3557

(b) $471.298

(c) $436.7194

(d) $435.7415

(e) $405.8112

Question 578  inflation, real and nominal returns and cash flows

Which of the following statements about inflation is NOT correct?

(a) Real returns approximately equal nominal returns less the inflation rate.

(b) Constant prices are the same as real prices.

(c) Current prices are the same as nominal prices.

(d) If your nominal wage grows by inflation, then your real wage won't change because you will be able to buy the same amount of goods and services as before.

(e) Interest rates advertised at the bank are usually quoted in real terms.

Question 604  inflation, real and nominal returns and cash flows

Apples and oranges currently cost $1 each. Inflation is 5% pa, and apples and oranges are equally affected by this inflation rate. Note that when payments are not specified as real, as in this question, they're conventionally assumed to be nominal.

Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

(a) A payment of $105 now has a real value of 105 apples or oranges now.

(b) A payment of $1 now has a real value of one apple or orange now.

(c) A payment of $105 in one year has a real value of 100 apples or oranges in one year.

(d) A payment of $105 in one year is worth $105 in real terms today.

(e) A payment of one apple now has a real value of one orange now.

Question 664  real and nominal returns and cash flows, inflation, no explanation

What is the present value of real payments of $100 every year forever, with the first payment in one year? The nominal discount rate is 7% pa and the inflation rate is 4% pa.

(a) $3,466.6667

(b) $3,333.3333

(c) $3,205.1282

(d) $1,485.7143

(e) $1,428.5714

Question 988  variance, covariance, beta, CAPM, risk, no explanation

Price Data Time Series
Sourced from Yahoo Finance Historical Price Data
Date	S&P500 Index (^GSPC)						Apple (AAPL)
	Open	High	Low	Close	Adj close		Open	High	Low	Close	Adj close
2007, Wed 3 Jan	1418	1429	1408	1417	1417		12.33	12.37	11.7	11.97	10.42
2008, Wed 2 Jan	1468	1472	1442	1447	1447		28.47	28.61	27.51	27.83	24.22
2009, Fri 2 Jan	903	935	899	932	932		12.27	13.01	12.17	12.96	11.28
2010, Mon 4 Jan	1117	1134	1117	1133	1133		30.49	30.64	30.34	30.57	26.6
Source: Yahoo Finance.

 

Which of the following statements about the above table which is used to calculate Apple's equity beta is NOT correct?

(a) Adjusted closing prices add back dividends and reverse the effect of stock splits.

(b) Apple's effective annual total return between the market close on 2 January 2008 and 2 January 2009 was -0.534269 (=(24.22-11.28)/24.22).

(c) Sample variance of the S&P500's effective annual total returns over the 3 year period was 0.084452.

(d) Sample covariance of effective total annual returns between Apple and the S&P500 index over the 3 year period was 0.041131.

(e) Apple's equity beta of annual total returns over the 3 year period was 3.530767.

Question 727  inflation, real and nominal returns and cash flows

The Australian Federal Government lends money to domestic students to pay for their university education. This is known as the Higher Education Contribution Scheme (HECS). The nominal interest rate on the HECS loan is set equal to the consumer price index (CPI) inflation rate. The interest is capitalised every year, which means that the interest is added to the principal. The interest and principal does not need to be repaid by students until they finish study and begin working.

Which of the following statements about HECS loans is NOT correct?

(a) The real interest rate is zero.

(b) The nominal amount owing on the loan will increase at the inflation rate over time, if there are no extra payments or borrowings.

(c) The real amount owing on the loan in today's money will remain the same over time, if there are no extra payments or borrowings.

(d) The interest rate on the HECS loan advantages rich domestic students because they are able to pay off their debt sooner and avoid paying as much HECS interest.

(e) The interest rate on the HECS loan advantages all domestic students because the alternative of borrowing from the bank to pay for education would usually attract a higher interest rate.

Question 728  inflation, real and nominal returns and cash flows, income and capital returns, no explanation

Which of the following statements about gold is NOT correct? Assume that the gold price increases by inflation. Gold has a:

(a) Nil income cash flow.

(b) Real total return of zero.

(c) Real capital return equal to the inflation rate.

(d) Real income return of zero.

(e) Nominal income return of zero.

Question 732  real and nominal returns and cash flows, inflation, income and capital returns

An investor bought a bond for $100 (at t=0) and one year later it paid its annual coupon of $1 (at t=1). Just after the coupon was paid, the bond price was $100.50 (at t=1). Inflation over the past year (from t=0 to t=1) was 3% pa, given as an effective annual rate.

Which of the following statements is NOT correct? The bond investment produced a:

(a) Nominal income return of 1% pa ##\left( =\dfrac{1}{100} \right)##.

(b) Nominal capital return of 0.5% pa ##\left( =\dfrac{100.5-100}{100} \right)##.

(c) Nominal total return of 1.5% pa ##\left( =\dfrac{100.5-100+1}{100} \right)##.

(d) Real income return of 0.9708738% pa##\left( =\dfrac{ 1/(1+0.03)^1}{100} \right)##.

(e) Real capital return of 0.4854369% pa ##\left( =\dfrac{ (100.5-100)/(1+0.03)^1}{100} \right) ##.

Question 734  real and nominal returns and cash flows, inflation, DDM, no explanation

An equities analyst is using the dividend discount model to price a company's shares. The company operates domestically and has no plans to expand overseas. It is part of a mature industry with stable positive growth prospects.

The analyst has estimated the real required return (r) of the stock and the value of the dividend that the stock just paid a moment before ##(C_\text{0 before})##.

What is the highest perpetual real growth rate of dividends (g) that can be justified? Select the most correct statement from the following choices. The highest perpetual real expected growth rate of dividends that can be justified is the country's expected:

(a) Inflation rate.

(b) Nominal GDP growth rate.

(c) Real GDP growth rate.

(d) Nominal total return on the share market index.

(e) Real total return on the share market index.

Question 739  real and nominal returns and cash flows, inflation

There are a number of different formulas involving real and nominal returns and cash flows. Which one of the following formulas is NOT correct? All returns are effective annual rates. Note that the symbol ##\approx## means 'approximately equal to'.

(a) ##r_\text{real} \approx r_\text{nominal} - r_\text{inflation}##

(b) ##(1+r_\text{real})^t = \left( \dfrac{1+r_\text{nominal}}{1+r_\text{inflation}} \right)^t ##

(c) ##V_\text{t,real} = V_\text{t,nominal}.(1+r_\text{inflation})^t##

(d) ##V_\text{0} = \dfrac{V_\text{t,nominal}}{(1+r_\text{nominal})^t}##

(e) ##V_\text{0} = \dfrac{V_\text{t,real}}{(1+r_\text{real})^t}##

Question 740  real and nominal returns and cash flows, DDM, inflation

Taking inflation into account when using the DDM can be hard. Which of the following formulas will NOT give a company's current stock price ##(P_0)##? Assume that the annual dividend was just paid ##(C_0)##, and the next dividend will be paid in one year ##(C_1)##.

(a) ##P_0=\dfrac{C_\text{1,nominal}}{r_\text{nominal} - g_\text{nominal}}##

(b) ##P_0 =\dfrac{C_0 (1+g_\text{nominal} )^1}{r_\text{nominal} - g_\text{nominal}}##

(c) ##P_0=\dfrac{C_\text{1,real}}{r_\text{real} - g_\text{real}}##

(d) ##P_0=\dfrac{C_0 (1+r_\text{real})^1}{r_\text{real} - g_\text{real}}##

(e) ##P_0=\dfrac{C_0(1+r_\text{nominal} )^1}{r_\text{nominal} - g_\text{nominal}} - C_0##

Question 744  income and capital returns, real and nominal returns and cash flows, inflation

If someone says "my shares rose by 10% last year", what do you assume that they mean? The effective annual:

(a) Historical nominal total return was 10%.

(b) Historical real total return was 10%.

(c) Expected nominal total return was 10%.

(d) Historical nominal capital return was 10%.

(e) Expected real dividend return was 10%.

Question 745  real and nominal returns and cash flows, inflation, income and capital returns

If the nominal gold price is expected to increase at the same rate as inflation which is 3% pa, which of the following statements is NOT correct?

(a) The nominal income return of gold is 0% pa.

(b) The nominal capital return of gold is 3% pa.

(c) The nominal total return of gold is 3% pa.

(d) The real income return of gold is -3% pa.

(e) The real capital return of gold is 0% pa.

Question 78  WACC, capital structure

A company issues a large amount of bonds to raise money for new projects of similar risk to the company's existing projects. The net present value (NPV) of the new projects is positive but small. Assume a classical tax system. Which statement is NOT correct?

(a) The debt-to-assets (D/V) ratio will increase.

(b) The debt-to-equity ratio (D/E) will increase.

(c) Firm value is likely to have increased due to the higher amount of interest tax shields, assuming that there will not be any costs of financial distress.

(d) The company's after-tax WACC is likely to have decreased.

(e) The company's before-tax WACC is likely to have decreased.

Question 91  WACC, capital structure

A firm has a debt-to-assets ratio of 50%. The firm then issues a large amount of equity to raise money for new projects of similar systematic risk to the company's existing projects. Assume a classical tax system. Which statement is correct?

(a) The debt-to-assets (D/V) ratio will increase.

(b) The debt-to-equity ratio (D/E) will increase.

(c) Firm value is likely to have increased due to the higher amount of interest tax shields, assuming that there will not be any costs of financial distress.

(d) The company's after-tax WACC is likely to stay the same.

(e) The company's before-tax WACC is likely to stay the same.

Question 113  WACC, CFFA, capital budgeting

The US firm Google operates in the online advertising business. In 2011 Google bought Motorola Mobility which manufactures mobile phones.

Assume the following:

• Google had a 10% after-tax weighted average cost of capital (WACC) before it bought Motorola.
• Motorola had a 20% after-tax WACC before it merged with Google.
• Google and Motorola have the same level of gearing.
• Both companies operate in a classical tax system.

You are a manager at Motorola. You must value a project for making mobile phones. Which method(s) will give the correct valuation of the mobile phone manufacturing project? Select the most correct answer.

The mobile phone manufacturing project's:

(a) Unlevered CFFA should be discounted by Google's 10% WACC after tax.

(b) Unlevered CFFA should be discounted by Motorola's 20% WACC after tax.

(c) Levered CFFA should be discounted by Google's 10% WACC after tax.

(d) Levered CFFA should be discounted by Motorola's 20% WACC after tax.

(e) Unlevered CFFA by 15%, the average of Google and Motorola's WACC after tax.

Question 114  WACC, capital structure, risk

A firm's WACC before tax would decrease due to:

(a) the firm's industry becoming more systematically risky, for example if it was a mining company and commodities prices varied more strongly and were more positively correlated with the market portfolio.

(b) the firm's industry becoming less systematically risky, for example if it was a child care centre and the government announced permanently higher subsidies for parents' child care expenses.

(c) the firm issuing more debt and using the proceeds to repurchase stock.

(d) the firm issuing more equity and using the proceeds to pay off debt holders.

(e) none of the above.

Question 115  capital structure, leverage, WACC

A firm has a debt-to-assets ratio of 50%. The firm then issues a large amount of debt to raise money for new projects of similar market risk to the company's existing projects. Assume a classical tax system. Which statement is correct?

(a) The debt-to-assets (D/V) ratio will decrease.

(b) The debt-to-equity ratio (D/E) will decrease.

(c) The firm's cost of equity will decrease.

(d) The company's after-tax WACC will decrease.

(e) The company's before-tax WACC will decrease.

Question 302  WACC, CAPM

Which of the following statements about the weighted average cost of capital (WACC) is NOT correct?

(a) WACC before tax ##= r_D.\dfrac{D}{V_L} + r_{EL}.\dfrac{E_L}{V_L}##

(b) WACC before tax ##= r_f + \beta_{VL}.(r_m - r_f)##

(c) WACC after tax ##= r_D.(1-t_c).\dfrac{D}{V_L} + r_{EL}.\dfrac{E_L}{V_L}##

(d) WACC after tax ##= r_f + \beta_{VL}.(r_m - r_f) - \dfrac{r_D.D.t_c}{V_L}##

(e) WACC after tax ##= r_f + \beta_{VL}.(r_m - r_f)##

Question 774  leverage, WACC, real estate

One year ago you bought a $1,000,000 house partly funded using a mortgage loan. The loan size was $800,000 and the other $200,000 was your wealth or 'equity' in the house asset.

The interest rate on the home loan was 4% pa.

Over the year, the house produced a net rental yield of 2% pa and a capital gain of 2.5% pa.

Assuming that all cash flows (interest payments and net rental payments) were paid and received at the end of the year, and all rates are given as effective annual rates, what was the total return on your wealth over the past year?

(a) 0.4808% pa

(b) 2% pa

(c) 4.5% pa

(d) 6.5% pa

(e) 8.5% pa

Hint: Remember that wealth in this context is your equity (E) in the house asset (V = D+E) which is funded by the loan (D) and your deposit or equity (E).

Question 936  CAPM, WACC, IRR

You work for XYZ company and you’ve been asked to evaluate a new project which has double the systematic risk of the company’s other projects.

You use the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) formula and input the treasury yield ##(r_f )##, market risk premium ##(r_m-r_f )## and the company’s asset beta risk factor ##(\beta_{XYZ} )## into the CAPM formula which outputs a return.

This return that you’ve just found is:

(a) The IRR of the company’s new project.

(b) The required return of the company’s new project.

(c) The IRR of the company’s assets.

(d) The required return of the company’s assets.

(e) The IRR of the company’s equity.

Question 617  systematic and idiosyncratic risk, risk, CAPM

A stock's required total return will increase when its:

(a) Systematic risk increases.

(b) Idiosyncratic risk increases.

(c) Total risk increases.

(d) Systematic risk decreases.

(e) Idiosyncratic risk decreases.

Question 661  systematic and idiosyncratic risk, CAPM

A stock's total standard deviation of returns is 20% pa. The market portfolio's total standard deviation of returns is 15% pa. The beta of the stock is 0.8.

What is the stock's diversifiable standard deviation?

(a) 16% pa

(b) 12% pa

(c) 8% pa

(d) 5% pa

(e) 4% pa

Question 776  market efficiency, systematic and idiosyncratic risk, beta, income and capital returns

Which of the following statements about returns is NOT correct? A stock's:

(a) Expected total return will equal its required total return if the stock is fairly priced.

(b) Expected total return will be less than its required total return if the stock is over-priced.

(c) Required total return should be higher than the risk free government bond yield if the stock has a positive beta.

(d) Required total return depends on its total variance, required capital return depends on systematic variance and the dividend yield depends on idiosyncratic variance.

(e) Expected capital return equals the expected total return less whatever the management decide that they will pay as an income return (which is the dividend yield).

Question 778  CML, systematic and idiosyncratic risk, portfolio risk, CAPM

The capital market line (CML) is shown in the graph below. The total standard deviation is denoted by σ and the expected return is μ. Assume that markets are efficient so all assets are fairly priced.

Which of the below statements is NOT correct?

(a) The risk free security has zero systematic variance and zero idiosyncratic variance.

(b) The market portfolio has zero idiosyncratic variance.

(c) Any portfolio comprised of the market portfolio and risk free security has zero idiosyncratic variance.

(d) Portfolios that plot on the CML must only be comprised of the risk free security and the market portfolio.

(e) Portfolios that plot on the CML have some idiosyncratic variance and some systematic variance.

Question 809  Markowitz portfolio theory, CAPM, Jensens alpha, CML, systematic and idiosyncratic risk

A graph of assets’ expected returns ##(\mu)## versus standard deviations ##(\sigma)## is given in the graph below. The CML is the capital market line.

Which of the following statements about this graph, Markowitz portfolio theory and the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) theory is NOT correct?

(a) The market portfolio M has systematic risk only. It’s a fully diversified portfolio comprised of all individual risky assets. The market portfolio is usually assumed to be the equity index, such as the ASX200 in Australia or the S&P500 in the US.

(b) The risk free security has no risk at all. Government bonds are usually assumed to be the risk-free security.

(c) Portfolio combinations of the market portfolio and risk free security will plot on the CML and will have systematic risk only. They will have no diversifiable risk.

(d) The portfolios on the CML with a return above ##r_f## have maximum return for any given level of risk.

(e) The individual assets and portfolios with returns less than the risk free rate are over-priced, have a negative Jensen’s alpha and should be sold.

Question 810  CAPM, systematic and idiosyncratic risk, market efficiency

Examine the graphs below. Assume that asset A is a single stock. Which of the following statements is NOT correct? Asset A:

(a) Has a beta of 0.5.

(b) Is fairly priced.

(c) Has systematic standard deviation equal to 10% pa.

(d) Has diversifiable standard deviation equal to 20% pa.

(e) Has total standard deviation equal to 40% pa.

Question 875  omitted variable bias, systematic and idiosyncratic risk, CAPM, single factor model, two factor model

The Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) and the Single Index Model (SIM) are single factor models whose only risk factor is the market portfolio’s return. Say a Solar electricity generator company and a Beach bathing chair renting company are influenced by two factors, the market portfolio return and cloud cover in the sky. When it's sunny and not cloudy, both the Solar and Beach companies’ stock prices do well. When there’s dense cloud cover and no sun, both do poorly. Assume that cloud coverage risk is a systematic risk that cannot be diversified and that cloud cover has zero correlation with the market portfolio’s returns.

Which of the following statements about these two stocks is NOT correct?

The CAPM and SIM:

(a) Betas of the Solar and Beach companies will only measure the companies’ sensitivity to the market portfolio risk factor, not the cloud coverage factor.

(b) Will under-estimate the Solar and Beach stocks’ systematic variance.

(c) Will under-estimate the Solar and Beach stocks’ diversifiable variance.

(d) Models will show positive correlations between the Solar and Beach stock’s residual (also called idiosyncratic or diversifiable) returns.

Question 939  CAPM, systematic and idiosyncratic risk

A common phrase heard in financial markets is that ‘high risk investments deserve high returns’. To make this statement consistent with the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM), a high amount of what specific type of risk deserves a high return?

Investors deserve high returns when they buy assets with high:

(a) Systematic risk.

(b) Diversifiable risk.

(c) Total risk.

(d) Credit risk.

(e) Foreign exchange risk.